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A social-democratic angle at the illegal immigration issue?

 
 
dlowan
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Aug, 2006 04:47 pm
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Anonymous Net Surfer
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Aug, 2006 04:48 pm

-joefromchicago

Yes, I can see how free would be difficult for you to understand. Perhaps an objective definition would help your understanding of my meaning of "freely."

entries found for freely.
free P Pronunciation Key (fr )
adj. fre•er, fre•est
1. Not imprisoned or enslaved; being at liberty.
2. Not controlled by obligation or the will of another: felt free to go.
3.
a. Having political independence: "America... is the freest and wealthiest nation in the world" (Rudolph W. Giuliani).
b. Governed by consent and possessing or granting civil liberties: a free citizenry.
c. Not subject to arbitrary interference by a government: a free press.
4.
a. Not affected or restricted by a given condition or circumstance: a healthy animal, free of disease; free from need.
b. Not subject to a given condition; exempt: income that is free of all taxes.
5. Not subject to external restraint: "Comment is free but facts are sacred" (Charles Prestwich Scott).
adv.
1. In a free manner; without restraint

"I never suggested that minimum wage laws are the remedy for starvation."
- joefromchicago

You most certainly imply that minimum wage laws are remedy for "starvation wages." And if you do not mean to imply that "starvation wages" are wages that cause people to starve, then why don't you provide a working definition of "starvation wages."

Taxpayers would be footing the bill whether workers are living in poverty and earning nothing or living in poverty and working.
- joefromchicago

So, why cause further injury? Why deny people their right to their property? Why shouldn't two individuals be allowed to freely (there's that pesky & daunting word again) enter into a contract? By what right does the government meddle in the free negotiations between a perspective employer and perspective employee? Simply because the government can does not mean that it isn't an violation of the rights afforded to U.S. citizens under the Constitution.

"On that point, I think Dukakis is absolutely correct."
-joefromchicago

I'm have no doubt that you do, but that's not an answer to the assertion that employers aren't obligated by to provide jobs to "Americans." In other words, "Americans" aren't entitled to jobs, they often must earn them. In this case, they seem to be woefully inept at competing for jobs; so, they turn to politicians for relief. And we as consumers are asked to subsidize their relative ineptness and laziness.

"The lowest wage that an employer will pay is the amount needed to keep a worker alive and that will cover the costs of finding his replacement once he dies from overwork and malnutrition."
-joefromchicago

WTF!? LOL Who dies from "overwork," and what exactly is overwork? If someone feels he (or she) is working too much, they always have the option (freedom) of not working.

The lowest wage an employer will pay is a combination between what a worker will freely accept and what the employer is willing to pay. It happens all the time in the underground job market. People freely enter into agreements that are "under the table."

"For a variety of reasons, most employers of illegal aliens pay more than a starvation wage.
-joefromchicago

A huh, I see.

"For one thing, illegals are usually free to go elsewhere, including staying in their countries of origin."
-joefromchicago

Well that depends on what you mean by "free." LOL J/K

Perhaps, they pay more than a "starvation wage" is because they feel the employees are worth a wage that is greater than a "starvation wage." Now, why aren't "Americans" commanding a wage that is greater than a "starvation wage?" Oh yes, you noted wages (even "starvation wages") paid here in the States tend to be greater than in "Mexico, China, Poland or wherever." Of course, these "illegals" while working in the States aren't living in "Mexico, China, Poland or wherever"; they take up residence in the United States, and thus they are subjected to the same costs of living as any other American.

So, why is it that these illegals are able to fend off starvation in here in the United States if they are being paid starvation wages?






.
0 Replies
 
IronLionZion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Aug, 2006 06:15 pm
Whoa, whoa, whoa, guys, with all this talk about the economic sense of minimum wage you all seem to have forgotten something: Dukakis never explains how altering the minimum wage will affect the immigration situation at all. His real solution seems to be "more enforcement." If that worked, why not just enforce the current laws? How does changing the minimum wage make these laws easier to enforce? I don't get it, and Dukakis never explains it.
0 Replies
 
Anonymous Net Surfer
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Aug, 2006 06:37 pm
lol

Good point.
0 Replies
 
IronLionZion
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Aug, 2006 07:31 pm
Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
lol

Good point.


Seriously. Nobody in this thread has explained what the hell raising the minimum wage has to do with controlling immigration. At all.
0 Replies
 
Anonymous Net Surfer
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 12:15 am
"Seriously. Nobody in this thread has explained what the hell raising the minimum wage has to do with controlling immigration. At all."
- IronLionZion

I knew you were serious, but I was reacting to your observation how we had moved away from the focal point of the initial post. I wasn't mocking your observation; I was agreeing with it, and laughing at my propensity to get carried away- that's all.

"How does changing the minimum wage make these laws easier to enforce? I don't get it, and Dukakis never explains it."
IronLionZion

Well, I haven't read what Dukakis said, but it isn't too difficult to see how he might try the two together.

That minimum wage increase is targeted at those immigrants who have secured fraudulent documents and are apart of the legal work force. But how does that curb employers from hiring people who have illegally obtained fraudulent documents that allow them to secure a "legitimate" above the table job? Well, my guess is that Dukakis is suggesting (between the lines) that employers well employ a insidious method of discrimination in choosing their employees. Once you remove or lessen the ability of the perspective employee to use wages as a bargaining-chip you open the door for other discriminatory methods to be used by perspective employers. In this case, it's obvious that discrimination by ethnicity will hopefully be utilized to weed out people who may be working illegally.

For example, let's take a dishwashing job. It must be assumed that many, if not, all dishwashers are, in reality, working illegally. Let's say the current market rate is $7 per hour (a "starvation wage"). At that rate, it happens that the people who are most interested in taking that job at that rate of pay are "Latinos." If you artificially raise wages to say $10 per hour (presumably a non-starvation wage) it is hoped that more "Americans" will be enticed to apply for those jobs. But why would Dukakis expect that perspective employers would hire so-called Americans over Latinos? After all, they all have documents that prove they can legally work in the States. So, why would he expect that minimum wage laws would cause the employers to refrain from hiring "illegals" who have obtained (unbeknownst to the employer) fraudulent documents? Because he is implying that they would discriminate, not on the basis of economics, but on the basis of ethnicity or race- and he has good reason to think that.

Economists, such as Thomas Sowell and Milton Friedman, have documented that have unemployment rates for black males have risen with the implementation of minimum wage laws. Very ironic, considering that Democrats love to claim that they are a friend to the "minorities."

I know that my argument may be very difficult to follow. I'm not an economist, and I do not have the experience to translate my thoughts into clearly well laid out arguments. I hope that you have some idea of what I am trying to convey. If not, perhaps Thomas might be able to better articulate the evils of minimum wage laws.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 02:24 am
joefromchicago wrote:
Let's say that Employer has a job that Worker is willing to perform for $3.00 an hour, while a machine would do the job for $5.00 an hour. Employer, taking some intangible (or, to put it more precisely, non-monetary) factors into consideration, decides to use the machine instead of hiring Worker. An economist would say either: (1) that the real cost of hiring Worker is more than $5.00/hour, or (2) that the real cost of the machine is less than $3.00/hour.

There are other possibilities; for example: (3) Competitor, a capitalist in the same market as Employer, also has a job that worker is willing to do at $3.00/hour. Because Worker's contribution to his bottom line is worth, say, $6.00/hour to him, he offers Worker a job for, say, $5.10/hour. Competitor's offer leaves Employer with no worker to hire, so Employer has to make do with a machine. Another possibility is (4) Employer's and Worker's country has a generous welfare state, where welfare payments (plus the non-monetary pleasure of leisure) are more attractive to Worker than a job at $5.00/hour. (That's the situation in Germany for some low-skilled workers.) Worker would settle for a $3/hour job if he had to -- but he doesn't have to. Instead, he has two more attractive opportunities, and he is choosing the most attractive among them.

Moreover, the economist could make refutable predictions. Either scenarios (3) and (4) are much more common than scenarios (1) and (2), or Employer and Competitor will soon loose market share to other players, who are neither machine-loving nerds nor a haters of workers. Those are refutable hypotheses, and it has turned out that hypotheses like these have withstood empirical testing pretty well.

joefromchicago wrote:
Of course, the only reason that the economist would say that is because, without resorting to the fiction of the "real" cost, Employer's decision would be inexplicable. That's why most people find economists baffling.

No. The reason economists say that is because that's how they define their terms. Most economics 101 books make a point of stating that accounting costs aren't the same as economic costs, and that economics is a science of economic cost, which by definition include non-monetary costs and benefits. The economist then observes that Employer leases the machine at $5/hour, still willing to lease it at $6.50/hour, but hires the $3/hour worker when the machine costs $6.51/hour. Given his definitions, he concludes that leasing the machine gives Employer economic benefits of $6.50, $3.50 or which are not accounting benefits.

Most sciences are baffling to those who don't try to understand their terminology first. Jurisprudence is one of them, as I found out to my embarrassment when I re-read some of our constitutional law discussions from a year ago. Economics is another.

joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
It could be anywhere between zero and the market wage -- and because the worker is jobless by his employer's choice, not his own choice, there is no way to know with any greater precision.

I think you miss my point. You can't blame minimum wage laws for causing poverty if the people are deprived of jobs that pay a poverty wage. Minimum wage laws only increase poverty if they eliminate jobs that would have provided a wage equal to or greater than the level needed to stay above the poverty line.

Oh, I did get that point. But except for some statisticians, poverty is a matter of degree, not a boolean variable. And my couterpoint to your point was this a) we know the worker benefits from that job, or else he wouldn't have decided to take it. So we know that taking that job away from him makes him at least somewhat worse off. b) The worker doesn't benefit more than the wage he is getting (unless you count intangible benefits). So the market wage is a reasonable upper bound of what the worker is losing when you take his job. But the core of my reply to your point is: We know that the job makes the worker somewhat better off, or he wouldn't take it; so we know we make the worker at least somewhat worse off by taking his job away. This does increase poverty.
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Miller
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 07:19 am
Quote:


Of course each person has " free will" and can make up his own mind "freely". However, when a person ( such as a single, poor, mother with 2-3 kids to support ) freely takes a low wage job, I think her choice is not one made freely. Rather, her " choice"
is one made by "necessity", forced upon her by fate and circumstances.

No one is a master of his'/her desitiny.
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Miller
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 07:19 am
Quote:


Of course each person has " free will" and can make up his own mind "freely". However, when a person ( such as a single, poor, mother with 2-3 kids to support ) freely takes a low wage job, I think her choice is not one made freely. Rather, her " choice"
is one made by "necessity", forced upon her by fate and circumstances.

No one is a master of his'/her destiny.
0 Replies
 
Anonymous Net Surfer
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 08:47 am
"I think her choice is not one made freely. Rather, her " choice" is one made by "necessity", forced upon her by fate and circumstances. No one is a master of his'/her destiny."
-Miller

Of course the choice is made freely. The taking of a job is not forced on anyone; just like a poor woman choosing to have 2 or 3 kids isn't a result of coercion- it was a freely made choice.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 09:04 am
IronLionZion wrote:
Seriously. Nobody in this thread has explained what the hell raising the minimum wage has to do with controlling immigration. At all.

But Dukakis and Mitchell did. Their second-to-last paragraph tells you what they think the two have to do with each other.

Dukakis and Mitchell wrote:
But if we want to reduce illegal immigration, it makes sense to reduce the abundance of extremely low-paying jobs that fuels it. If we raise the minimum wage, it's possible some low-end jobs may be lost; but more Americans would also be willing to work in such jobs, thereby denying them to people who aren't supposed to be here in the first place. And tough enforcement of wage rules would curtail the growth of an underground economy in which both illegal immigration and employer abuses thrive.

As it happens, I agree with the authors on the descriptive level. But on the normative level, I am appalled by the same policy consequences that they evidently find attractive.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 09:42 am
Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:

-joefromchicago

Yes, I can see how free would be difficult for you to understand. Perhaps an objective definition would help your understanding of my meaning of "freely."

Adverting to a dictionary definition as a means of resolving a dispute is merely an argumentum ad verecundiam.

Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
You most certainly imply that minimum wage laws are remedy for "starvation wages." And if you do not mean to imply that "starvation wages" are wages that cause people to starve, then why don't you provide a working definition of "starvation wages."

To refresh your recollection, here is what I initially said about starvation wages:
    A minimum wage law, unaccompanied by any kind of social welfare plan that would assist the person who is unemployable because of the effects of the minimum wage law, would be difficult to defend. On the other hand, a system that ignored the needs of those who are only employable at starvation wages would be, I think, equally difficult to defend.
I am neither saying nor implying that minimum wage laws are a "remedy" for starvation wages.

Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
So, why cause further injury? Why deny people their right to their property? Why shouldn't two individuals be allowed to freely (there's that pesky & daunting word again) enter into a contract? By what right does the government meddle in the free negotiations between a perspective employer and perspective employee? Simply because the government can does not mean that it isn't an violation of the rights afforded to U.S. citizens under the Constitution.

The state interferes in the right to contract all the time, not just in the area of wages. So why should the state be prohibited from interfering in this one area, when it interferes in all the others?

Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
I'm have no doubt that you do, but that's not an answer to the assertion that employers aren't obligated by to provide jobs to "Americans." In other words, "Americans" aren't entitled to jobs, they often must earn them. In this case, they seem to be woefully inept at competing for jobs; so, they turn to politicians for relief. And we as consumers are asked to subsidize their relative ineptness and laziness.

I have no idea what you're saying here, but it doesn't appear that you are addressing my argument, so I need not respond.

Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
Who dies from "overwork," and what exactly is overwork?

Perhaps your dictionary could be of some assistance here.

Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
If someone feels he (or she) is working too much, they always have the option (freedom) of not working.

A rather dubious advantage to being "free."

Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
So, why is it that these illegals are able to fend off starvation in here in the United States if they are being paid starvation wages?

I never said they were being paid starvation wages. Indeed, I specifically said they weren't.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 10:00 am
Thomas wrote:
Oh, I did get that point. But except for some statisticians, poverty is a matter of degree, not a boolean variable.

Not in the US, where the poverty level is an absolute measure, not a relative one. Furthermore, to say that poverty is relative is to say that, ultimately, there is only one person living in poverty, because everyone else is better off in comparison. I find that rather difficult to accept. In addition, that's just indulging in a sorites paradox.

Thomas wrote:
And my couterpoint to your point was this a) we know the worker benefits from that job, or else he wouldn't have decided to take it. So we know that taking that job away from him makes him at least somewhat worse off. b) The worker doesn't benefit more than the wage he is getting (unless you count intangible benefits). So the market wage is a reasonable upper bound of what the worker is losing when you take his job. But the core of my reply to your point is: We know that the job makes the worker somewhat better off, or he wouldn't take it; so we know we make the worker at least somewhat worse off by taking his job away. This does increase poverty.

Only relatively, not absolutely. I don't regard it as a significant achievement for a society to have the members of its lowest classes die off at a slightly slower rate than is possible.
0 Replies
 
Thomas
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 11:30 am
joefromchicago wrote:
Thomas wrote:
Oh, I did get that point. But except for some statisticians, poverty is a matter of degree, not a boolean variable.

Not in the US, where the poverty level is an absolute measure, not a relative one. Furthermore, to say that poverty is relative is to say that, ultimately, there is only one person living in poverty, because everyone else is better off in comparison. I find that rather difficult to accept. In addition, that's just indulging in a sorites paradox.

I didn't say poverty is relative -- I said it's a matter of degree, not a Boolean variable. As in: If you own $100, you're poorer than when you own $110. This is true whether you define the poverty level in relative or absolute terms.

But you're right, the minimum wage may well decrease the poverty rate as the Census Bureau defines it. For example, if the market for some kind of job clears at a wage of $4.00/hour, fulltime employment in that job reaches the poverty level at $5.00/hour, and the federal government legislates a minimum wage of $6.00/hour, all workers who get a raise are lifted above the poverty level, and all workers who lose their job stay poor. This may make the poverty statistics look prettier by not registering the disemployed workers' loss at all. But I find it rather cynical to say that those workers aren't poorer just because statistics treat poverty as a Boolean variable, so don't detect the change in their poverty.
0 Replies
 
Miller
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 01:50 pm
Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
... like a poor woman choosing to have 2 or 3 kids isn't a result of coercion- it was a freely made choice.


What if it wasn't? You've heard of rape, haven't you? How about
incest? All very common to poor, uneducated women , who didn't choose to be born and certainly didn't choose to be rich.

Wouldn't it be nice, if all American women could be as rich and well taken care of as Mrs. Astor of NY?

I don't think you really understand the meaning of freely.
0 Replies
 
Miller
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 01:56 pm
Quote:
Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
Who dies from "overwork," and what exactly is overwork?


Vist some of the sweat shops in an American Chinatown, fi you want to see some examples.

Vist a home, where a poor woman with 12 kids under the age of 15 is trying to make ends meet on welfare plus menial labor.

If you have to ask what "overwork" is, I suspect you're either
of diminished mental capacity or still in the 8th grade.
0 Replies
 
Anonymous Net Surfer
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 02:13 pm
"What if it wasn't? You've heard of rape, haven't you? How about
incest? All very common to poor, uneducated women."

-Miller

Ok, all those women who had children as a result of rape would be exempt. They can live off the State for ever. But what of those financially poor women who have freely chosen to have children? Why should employers be forced to pay for their decisions?


"Wouldn't it be nice, if all American women could be as rich and well taken care of as Mrs. Astor of NY?"
- Miller

No.
0 Replies
 
Anonymous Net Surfer
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 02:16 pm
"The state interferes in the right to contract all the time, not just in the area of wages. So why should the state be prohibited from interfering in this one area, when it interferes in all the others?"
-joefromchicago

Since you are either unable or unwilling to answer direct questions I'll pass on yours.


"A minimum wage law, unaccompanied by any kind of social welfare plan that would assist the person who is unemployable because of the effects of the minimum wage law, would be difficult to defend. On the other hand, a system that ignored the needs of those who are only employable at starvation wages would be, I think, equally difficult to defend."
-joefromchicago

It appears you are unable to supply a definition of "starvation wages."

"Adverting to a dictionary definition as a means of resolving a dispute"
-joefromchicago

Failing to understand a simple word such as "freely" suggest you are obtuse, or that you are just feigning ignorance in order to be difficult.

"I am neither saying nor implying that minimum wage laws are a "remedy" for starvation wages."
-joefromchicago

Of course you have.

"A rather dubious advantage to being "free."
- joefromchicago

LOL Not really, people do it all the time. Sometimes they take vacations, take the weekend off, or just go home at 5:00 PM.

"I never said they were being paid starvation wages. Indeed, I specifically said they weren't."
-joefromchicago

Ok, just what kind of wages are they earning?
0 Replies
 
IronLionZion
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 06:23 pm
Thomas wrote:
IronLionZion wrote:
Seriously. Nobody in this thread has explained what the hell raising the minimum wage has to do with controlling immigration. At all.

But Dukakis and Mitchell did. Their second-to-last paragraph tells you what they think the two have to do with each other.

Dukakis and Mitchell wrote:
But if we want to reduce illegal immigration, it makes sense to reduce the abundance of extremely low-paying jobs that fuels it. If we raise the minimum wage, it's possible some low-end jobs may be lost; but more Americans would also be willing to work in such jobs, thereby denying them to people who aren't supposed to be here in the first place. And tough enforcement of wage rules would curtail the growth of an underground economy in which both illegal immigration and employer abuses thrive.


Huh? It "makes sense to reduce the abundance of extremely low paying jobs that fuels [illegal immigration]"? People who employ illegal immigrants are breaking the law and are therefore unlikley to be affected at all by a raise in minimum wage. It's not as if these employers are going to raise wages when their entire operation is completely illegal in the first place. Am I missing something here?
0 Replies
 
IronLionZion
 
  1  
Reply Tue 8 Aug, 2006 08:00 pm
Anonymous_Net_Surfer wrote:
"Seriously. Nobody in this thread has explained what the hell raising the minimum wage has to do with controlling immigration. At all."
- IronLionZion

I knew you were serious, but I was reacting to your observation how we had moved away from the focal point of the initial post. I wasn't mocking your observation; I was agreeing with it, and laughing at my propensity to get carried away- that's all.

"How does changing the minimum wage make these laws easier to enforce? I don't get it, and Dukakis never explains it."
IronLionZion

Well, I haven't read what Dukakis said, but it isn't too difficult to see how he might try the two together.

That minimum wage increase is targeted at those immigrants who have secured fraudulent documents and are apart of the legal work force. But how does that curb employers from hiring people who have illegally obtained fraudulent documents that allow them to secure a "legitimate" above the table job? Well, my guess is that Dukakis is suggesting (between the lines) that employers well employ a insidious method of discrimination in choosing their employees.


Maybe he is suggesting that raising the minimum wage will drastically reduce or eliminate the need for "legitimate" workers from Mexico because Americans will be willing to do the job.
0 Replies
 
 

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