Thomas wrote:
Debra_Law wrote: The Constitution was designed to secure the blessings of liberty--not just for the generation that ordained and established the Constitution--but for all future generations.
I agree. That's why the constitution specifies an amendment process.
The Constitution secures all liberty, great and small, against both state and federal government oppressions. There is no need to amend the Constitution to secure liberty for future generations when it already secures liberty.
Thomas wrote:Debra_Law wrote:The Constitution was designed to endure as society progressed in order to address the issues that future generations would face. Our courts cannot judge the legitimate interests of government today through a lens that is over 230 years old; they must apply present day standards and that's where a diversity of perspective is helpful for the judges to reach a considered judgment that truly secures liberty and justice for all while giving due deference to the legitimate interests of modern-day government.
I disagree with your premise here; but if I agreed with it, I would also be agreeing with your conclusion about diversity.
Years ago, it was accepted that state government had a legitimate interest in the purity of race lines and that state statutory bans on interracial marriages were reasonably related to that interest.
If we look through the lens that existed when the Fourteenth Amendment was ratified, then the government interests that were considered legitimate THEN would be construed to be legitimate TODAY and unalterable except through a constitutional amendment process. And, despite the constitutional language that prohibits states from depriving
any person of liberty without due process of law or equal protection of the laws, our judges would be forced to ignore the actual language of the Constitution itself and apply decades or centuries old standards.
In order to apply "original intent" when the Supreme Court decided Loving v. Virginia, the Supreme Court would have to rule that the phrase "any person" as used in the Fourteenth Amendment doesn't mean what it says, but rather is subject to a latent ambiguity that requires the Court to ascertain the historical intent of the phrase through historical records. The Supreme Court, using "original intent," could have ruled that the Fourteenth Amendment was never intended to allow black persons a liberty interest in the right to marry the person of their choice, e.g., to marry white persons. The Supreme Court would have been forced to uphold Virginia laws that prohibit blacks from marrying whites and proclaim the issue is a political issue to be decided by the states.
Today, most of us (except those few who still adhere to the concept of "White Supremacy") understand that the state does NOT have a legitimate interest in maintaining the "racial integrity" of bloodlines through the force of law. But, according to you and your understanding of "original intent," EVERY TIME society progresses to understand that laws that were once thought to be necessary and proper only serve to oppress, we must amend our Constitution to reflect that enlightened understanding. That is NOT what our forefathers intended when they designed a Constitution to endure for all time. Accordingly, under the guise of pursing "original intent," those who subscribe to "original intent" willfully ignore "original intent." I cannot embrace such a hypocritical view of the Constitution.
The first rule of construction is to look at the specific language and give that language its plain meaning. The phrase "any person" means exactly what it says. It includes minorities and women. Simply because the drafters and ratifiers of the Constitution, the Bill of Rights, and the Fourteenth Amendment and their immediate progeny lived during a historical period of time when oppression and discrimination with respect to minorities and women was common, that doesn't mean that present day justices must honor that oppressive history over and above the actual language of the Constitution that protects and secures the rights of "any person" without exception against unreasonable government infringements or deprivations.
Thomas wrote:
Debra_Law wrote:You believe Roe v. Wade was decided incorrectly. According to you, a woman does not have a liberty interest in her own procreative destiny that is secured by the Constitution. If that is true and judges are the programmers, what law would they need to plug into the program to achieve the "correct" result?
I am not sure what you mean by "correct result" here. If you are asking what I think would have happened if the Burger court had correctly applied the current federal constitution to the facts of
Roe, my answer is that
the constitution says nothing about abortion, and that the case ought therefore be decided by the laws of the state of Texas.
I know nothing about the Texas constitution, so for all I know it may have contained a clause from which Roe's counsel might have derived a protected right to terminate a pregnancy on demand.
But I don't see such a clause in the federal constitution.
So what if the Constitution doesn't specifically secure a woman's liberty interest in her own procreative destiny? So what if the Constitution doesn't specifically secure a black person's liberty interest in the choice of his/her marital partner regardless of race? The Constitution says nothing about the right to marry. Therefore, according to your analysis, in Loving v. Virginia, the Supreme Court should ruled that the issue of whether blacks may marry whites should be decided by the laws of the state of Virginia.
The Constitution does not have to enumerate or specify liberty interests that are secured against oppression because the Constitution protects ALL liberty, great and small, against unreasonable government infringements or deprivations.
If you truly subscribe to "original intent," then you ought to know that our forefather's were terrified that the inclusion of a bill of rights would be construed in the exact manner in which you construe the Constitution. You are guilty of the very evil that our forefathers feared the most and sought to prevent. To address that valid fear, Madison proposed language that ultimately became the Ninth Amendment. The enumeration of some rights in the constitution that are protected against government oppression shall not be construed to deny or disparage all other rights retained by the people.
Thomas wrote:In particular , I believe that "women have a right to on-demand abortion" does not follow from "nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law". To answer the second sentence of your paragraph I just quoted, I do assume women have a liberty interest in their own procreative destiny, but I see no evidence that the "process" in the state of Texas was not "due". I think the Roe decision is an example of substantive due process run awry. I don't mean to argue the merits of this right now -- for the sake of our diversity argument, I am willing to assume that my opinion here is wrong. I'm just saying that I would not view this question of constitutional law differently if I was an originalist woman rather than an originalist man. By contrast, I might well view it differently if I was a "living constitution" woman, as compared to a "living constitution" man.
If your question assumes that the result of Roe was correct, and you are asking how the constitution would have had to be different to make Blackmun's conclusions correct, I can think of several answers. One is a clause that explicitly says: "persons have a right to live beginning at time x." If x means "the date of birth", all abortions are legal. If it means "the moment of conception", all abortions are illegal except when they are necessary to save the mother's life. A different solution -- one that Germany's constitution adopts in its kinda-bill-of-rights -- is to add to the more abstract amendments a clause like: "The details shall be regulated by a federal statute". That way, the German parliament lays down many of the specifics that our bill of rights lays out in the abstract. So far, it has been a workable and ethically satisfactory approach for us. I don't see why it wouldn't work in the United States.
Where in the Constitution do you find any power delegated by the people to the government to enact oppressive laws that substantively deny or disparage individual liberty interests? Due process of law does NOT embrace the substance of oppressive, arbitrary laws on their face nor the application (enforcement) of laws in an oppressive or arbitrary manner. Government may only enact laws that serve legitimate government interests; it is never a legitimate interest of the government to oppress the people as individuals, or as members of a disfavored group, or as a whole.