0
   

Why are Proto-Germanic *ga- and Proto-Indo-European *ḱóm cognate?

Forums: Gothic
Email this Topic • Print this Page
 
 
NickTheodorov
 
Reply Tue 7 Jan, 2020 06:18 pm
Why are Proto-Germanic *ga- and Proto-Indo-European *ḱóm cognate?

I know that Proto-Germanic *h and Proto-Indo-European *k are cognate by the Grimm's law.

I know that Proto-Germanic *g and Proto-Indo-European *k may be cognate by the Verner's law (excluding a starting position)

But what about Proto-Indo-European *ḱ?

When is Proto-Indo-European *ḱ cogante to Proto-Germanic *g?
When is Proto-Indo-European *ḱ cogante to Proto-Germanic *h?

Does "stress" matter?
  • Topic Stats
  • Top Replies
  • Link to this Topic
Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 367 • Replies: 0
No top replies

 
 

Related Topics

Gothic vs Russian - Question by NickTheodorov
Is current Gothic normalised transliteration correct or not? - Question by NickTheodorov
Are Gothic digraph "ai" and Old High German "e" cognate only before /h/, /hʷ/, /r/? - Question by NickTheodorov
Are Gothic "lþ", "lf" ("rþ", "rf") exceptions from the Verner's law? - Question by NickTheodorov
Is Gothic us- / ur- sound change a Rhotacism? - Question by NickTheodorov
Are Gothic 𐌹𐌶𐌴 (izē) and Proto-Slavic *jixъ cognate? - Question by NickTheodorov
Is Gothic "im" equal to Proto-Slavic "ę" only before consonants? - Question by NickTheodorov
Why are Gothic þliuhan and English flee cognate? - Question by NickTheodorov
Gothic "taihun" ten "tigus" -ty - Question by NickTheodorov
Why Gothic verb fraisan "to tempt" don't have "t" in a stem - Question by NickTheodorov
Why Gothic nouns waldufni “authority” and wundufni "wound" have “f” in a stem - Question by NickTheodorov
 
  1. Forums
  2. » Why are Proto-Germanic *ga- and Proto-Indo-European *ḱóm cognate?
Copyright © 2025 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 02/04/2025 at 10:42:11
▲ ▼