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Affirmative Duty to PROTECT?

 
 
Reply Fri 11 Mar, 2005 04:36 pm
Supreme Court to Weigh in on Due Process and Domestic Violence

Quote:
A rare and tragic family law challenge in the U.S. Supreme Court will draw the justices this month into the serious nationwide problem of domestic violence and the continuing difficulty of enforcement of one of the most important weapons against that violence -- protection orders.

In Town of Castle Rock, Colorado v. Gonzales, No. 04-728, the high court will consider whether a civil rights remedy is available to domestic violence victims whose pleas to enforce protection orders go unheeded by local police departments.

"In concrete terms: Does the government have a constitutional duty to protect us against private violence? Or is the Constitution, as has been put by several people, a charter of negative liberties -- it keeps the government's hands off of us?"


What is your position on this issue?

If we take a look at the Declaration of Independence, our forefathers TOLD us why we form governments. All individuals are born with inalienable rights (rights that we may not voluntarily surrender to the government), and among those rights are LIFE, LIBERTY, and the pursuit of happiness. TO SECURE THOSE RIGHTS, people form governments . . .

Without government, each and every one of us would be left to our devices to protect our individual rights to LIFE and LIBERTY and the PURSUIT OF HAPPINESS. Because we formed government to secure those rights . . . and our government is one of law . . . we are NOT allowed to take the law into our own hands. If someone is threatening our life or liberty or happiness . . . we must resort to the law for our protection.

We are not allowed to defend ourselves unless our lives or bodily integrity are in imminent danger. For instance, would-be rape victim can kill her attacker in justifiable self-defense to ward off the attack or to stop the attack . . . but once the attacker has ceased the attack, the danger is gone and the rape victim cannot injure or kill her attacker. Justice must be left to the law.

Inasmuch as we are not allowed to take the law into our own hands and will be punished if we do so when our own lives/bodily integrity is not in imminent danger . . . and our government instead requires us to seek the protection of government, (e.g., through obtaining protection orders to keep would-be dangerous people away from us), shouldn't the government be held liable for damages if the government fails to enforce a protection order?

What are your views? Inasmuch as we are not allowed to take the law into our own hands, does the government have an affirmative duty to protect us from a known source of potential harm?
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fishin
 
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Reply Fri 11 Mar, 2005 05:35 pm
South v. Maryland (USSC 1856)
Ne Casek v. City of Los Angeles (1965)
Susman v. City of Los Angeles (1969)
Antique Arts Corp. v. City of Torrence (1974)
Hartzler v. City of San Jose (USSC 1975)
Warren v. District of Columbia (444 A.2d 1, 1981)
Bowers v. Devito (7th Cir. 1982)
Davidson v. City of Westminister (USSC 1982)
Westbrooks v. State (1985)
DeShaney v. Winnebago County Department of Social Services (USSC 1989)

There are probably others but, as those show at least, the Courts have held pretty consistantly that the government has no responsibility to provide any affirmative protection.

While I'd agree that the government has (or should have) a responsibily in GENERAL terms - I don't think a government agency can or should be held liable for failing to assert an affirmative protection in specific cases.
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Thomas
 
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Reply Mon 14 Mar, 2005 12:10 pm
I am a bit confused here. Obviously the lives and the liberty of two children were lost because the police failed to enforce a restraining order. This means that even in a narrow, Hobbesian, negative-rights kind of view, the state failed to protect the natural rights of those children. So I don't understand why a constitutional right to have that restraining order enforced would depend on an "affirmative rights" interpretation of the constitution. Could someone with legal expertise please explain this to me?

On second thought: Why is this a constitutional law case? On the face of it, it seems clear the police have been negligent, perhaps criminally so. So why is this a case of constitutional law, rather than one of tort law or criminal law? Why did Gonzales sue the town for a breach of her constitutional rights, rather than the individual police officers for neglecting to do their job?
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fishin
 
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Reply Mon 14 Mar, 2005 04:29 pm
Thomas wrote:
On second thought: Why is this a constitutional law case? On the face of it, it seems clear the police have been negligent, perhaps criminally so. So why is this a case of constitutional law, rather than one of tort law or criminal law?


The police can only be found negligent or criminally liable if they have a legal obligation to provide said protection. In all of the cases I cited the courts have previously ruled that no such legal obligation exists.

Quote:
Why did Gonzales sue the town for a breach of her constitutional rights, rather than the individual police officers for neglecting to do their job?


In almost all locations in the U.S. government employees have blanket protection from prosecutiion or civil liability as long as they are functioning within the confines of established law or agency policy. That leaves someone with a complaint with tehy option of suing the agency or government entity the civil servant works for.
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Thomas
 
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Reply Tue 15 Mar, 2005 09:49 am
Thanks fishin!

I guess I have a very strong gut feeling that what the police did in this case sucked, with fatal consequences for those kids. I want some law to rule to say that the police acted illegally. Tort law and criminal law don't seem to be it. And the Fifth Amendment doesn't seem to apply, because the state didn't deprive those chilren of their lives, liberty and property without due process of law -- it only failed to protect those children from having others do this, even when it could have. According to the precedents you cite, this seems to be constitutional. But it still sucks.
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goodfielder
 
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Reply Fri 18 Mar, 2005 05:35 am
Different jurisdiction I know but it's been held here that the police, in common with every other individual and agency in society, have a duty of care (re negligence). I don't know the circumstances of this particular case but if it happened here then it might be the case that if they were negligent then an action would succeed.
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Debra Law
 
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Reply Mon 27 Jun, 2005 12:01 pm
The Decision
CASTLE ROCK V. GONZALES (04-278)

[June 27, 2005]

Justice Scalia delivered the opinion of the Court.


Quote:
We decide in this case whether an individual who has obtained a state-law restraining order has a constitutionally protected property interest in having the police enforce the restraining order when they have probable cause to believe it has been violated.

* * *

The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution provides that a State shall not “deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.” Amdt. 14, §1. In 42 U.S.C. § 1983 Congress has created a federal cause of action for “the deprivation of any rights, privileges, or immunities secured by the Constitution and laws.” Respondent claims the benefit of this provision on the ground that she had a property interest in police enforcement of the restraining order against her husband; and that the town deprived her of this property without due process by having a policy that tolerated nonenforcement of restraining orders.

As the Court of Appeals recognized, we left a similar question unanswered in DeShaney v. Winnebago County Dept. of Social Servs., 489 U.S. 189 (1989), another case with “undeniably tragic” facts: Local child-protection officials had failed to protect a young boy from beatings by his father that left him severely brain damaged. Id., at 191—193. We held that the so-called “substantive” component of the Due Process Clause does not “requir[e] the State to protect the life, liberty, and property of its citizens against invasion by private actors.” Id., at 195. We noted, however, that the petitioner had not properly preserved the argument that–and we thus “decline[d] to consider” whether–state “child protection statutes gave [him] an ‘entitlement’ to receive protective services in accordance with the terms of the statute, an entitlement which would enjoy due process protection.” Id., at 195, n. 2.

The procedural component of the Due Process Clause does not protect everything that might be described as a “benefit”: “To have a property interest in a benefit, a person clearly must have more than an abstract need or desire” and “more than a unilateral expectation of it. He must, instead, have a legitimate claim of entitlement to it.” Board of Regents of State Colleges v. Roth, 408 U.S. 564, 577 (1972). Such entitlements are “ ‘of course, … not created by the Constitution. Rather, they are created and their dimensions are defined by existing rules or understandings that stem from an independent source such as state law.’ ” Paul v. Davis, 424 U.S. 693, 709 (1976) (quoting Roth, supra, at 577); see also Phillips v. Washington Legal Foundation, 524 U.S. 156, 164 (1998).


* * *


Our cases recognize that a benefit is not a protected entitlement if government officials may grant or deny it in their discretion. See, e.g., Kentucky Dept. of Corrections v. Thompson, 490 U.S. 454, 462—463 (1989).

* * *

A peace officer shall arrest, or, if an arrest would be impractical under the circumstances, seek a warrant for the arrest of a restrained person when the peace officer has information amounting to probable cause that:

“(I) The restrained person has violated or attempted to violate any provision of a restraining order; and

“(II) The restrained person has been properly served with a copy of the restraining order or the restrained person has received actual notice of the existence and substance of such order.

* * *

Whether or not respondent had a right to enforce the restraining order, it rendered certain otherwise lawful conduct by her husband both criminal and in contempt of court. See §§18—6—803.5(2)(a), (7). The creation of grounds on which he could be arrested, criminally prosecuted, and held in contempt was hardly “valueless”–even if the prospect of those sanctions ultimately failed to prevent him from committing three murders and a suicide.

We do not believe that these provisions of Colorado law truly made enforcement of restraining orders mandatory. A well established tradition of police discretion has long coexisted with apparently mandatory arrest statutes.

* * *

Even if the statute could be said to have made enforcement of restraining orders “mandatory” because of the domestic-violence context of the underlying statute, that would not necessarily mean that state law gave respondent an entitlement to enforcement of the mandate.

* * *

Respondent’s alleged interest stems only from a State’s statutory scheme–from a restraining order that was authorized by and tracked precisely the statute on which the Court of Appeals relied. She does not assert that she has any common-law or contractual entitlement to enforcement. If she was given a statutory entitlement, we would expect to see some indication of that in the statute itself.

* * *

Even if we were to think otherwise concerning the creation of an entitlement by Colorado, it is by no means clear that an individual entitlement to enforcement of a restraining order could constitute a “property” interest for purposes of the Due Process Clause. Such a right would not, of course, resemble any traditional conception of property. Although that alone does not disqualify it from due process protection, as Roth and its progeny show, the right to have a restraining order enforced does not “have some ascertainable monetary value,” as even our “Roth-type property-as-entitlement” cases have implicitly required. Merrill, The Landscape of Constitutional Property, 86 Va. L. Rev. 885, 964 (2000).12 Perhaps most radically, the alleged property interest here arises incidentally, not out of some new species of government benefit or service, but out of a function that government actors have always performed–to wit, arresting people who they have probable cause to believe have committed a criminal offense.13

* * *

We conclude, therefore, that respondent did not, for purposes of the Due Process Clause, have a property interest in police enforcement of the restraining order against her husband. It is accordingly unnecessary to address the Court of Appeals’ determination (366 F.3d, at 1110—1117) that the town’s custom or policy prevented the police from giving her due process when they deprived her of that alleged interest. See American Mfrs. Mut. Ins. Co. v. Sullivan, 526 U.S. 40, 61 (1999).14

In light of today’s decision and that in DeShaney, the benefit that a third party may receive from having someone else arrested for a crime generally does not trigger protections under the Due Process Clause, neither in its procedural nor in its “substantive” manifestations. This result reflects our continuing reluctance to treat the Fourteenth Amendment as “ ‘a font of tort law,’ ” Parratt v. Taylor, 451 U.S. 527, 544 (1981) (quoting Paul v. Davis, 424 U.S., at 701), but it does not mean States are powerless to provide victims with personally enforceable remedies. Although the framers of the Fourteenth Amendment and the Civil Rights Act of 1871, 17 Stat. 13 (the original source of §1983), did not create a system by which police departments are generally held financially accountable for crimes that better policing might have prevented, the people of Colorado are free to craft such a system under state law. Cf. DeShaney, 489 U.S., at 203.15
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