@Walter Hinteler,
Walter Hinteler wrote:
livinglava wrote:If you look at the history of unions, especially in Europe, the unions following WWII were always strong enough to maintain wage growth that outpaces inflation. In other words, they were successful at keeping the purchasing power of the middle-class on par with productivity growth more generally.
I was born after WWII.
I live in Europe.
I've studied history.
I'm not aware of any "union" in Europe besides
- the European Economic Cooperation (OEEC), founded 1948,
- Benelux (1948),
-- both becoming/joining the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) in 1951,
--- on 25th March 1957, the Treaties of Rome were signed, establishing the European Economic Community (EEC) and the European Atomic Energy Community (Euratom).
You certainly know what happened afterwards ... 26 (27 with the UK) EU-countries now.
To what other unions (plural, as far as I get it) are you referring, especially, since these "unions following WWII were always strong enough to maintain wage growth that outpaces inflation" to use your own words.
The bottom line is that there is social-political activity, governmental and non-governmental, geared toward controlling capitalism for the benefit of middle-class purchasing power. That is the essence of socialism.
Marxism complains that capitalists exploit workers so that the bourgeoisie always gets the lion share and keeps the proletariat on a short leash. Those who dislike this aspect of capitalism attempt to exercise power over the means of production to increase purchasing power, i.e. the means of consumption, for the workers/middle-class relative to the bourgeois class. There are enumerable ways to pursue this goal, both with government and outside of it.
If I understand the Torrie/Labour class division within British parliament, the Torries are the bourgeosie in Marxian terms, the owners of the means of production, the capitalists. Labour, as per their name, are the working class, those who utilize the means of production to produce goods/services but have to struggle against the capitalists for a larger share of power and the means of consumption.
So if E.U. membership is hindering the ability of the Torries/bourgeoisie/capitalists to pursue their political goals, then that would be a logical motivation for Brexit. If, on the other hand, E.U. membership gave them sufficient power to maintain control over the means of production against the forces that attempt to gain control over it for the benefit of the workers/middle-class, they would be more interested in remaining within the E.U. Is that not a logical analysis? Is it contradicted by some facts I am unaware of?
My impression is that E.U. membership has economic benefits for expanding the means of consumption for Europeans generally. In other words, it gives more power to the people to control the economy in their interest. On the other hand, however, it makes it more difficult for capitalists to maintain class divisions that allow them to keep the larger classes more economically restricted/austere so that they can maintain class privileges. If this is the case, it makes sense for capitalists to resist the E.U. except to the extent it provides them with larger markets to make more money. Making more money loses its value when you are simultaneously losing control over the privileges that come with making more money.