1
   

There is no such thing as NOTHING, so...........

 
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Sep, 2004 09:19 pm
alikimr

Quote:
You imply/state that ' NOTHING has
presence/existence.......' I am not sure if you are

making that statement in your non-dualism Buddhist sense, or if you are stating a real fact of reality, in the ordinary dualism perspective. At any
rate, the Nothingness I am talking about is best
described by J.P.Sartre in his "Being and Nothingness". Existence is Being , and non-existence is Nothingness.
I hope the implied dualism doesn't stop
you from considering the proposition.
0 Replies
 
alikimr
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Sep, 2004 10:54 pm
JLN:
What I meant to express in that position which you referred to , and obviously failed to do so, was to discover if twyvel was using the dualism
perspective in this instance, since I remember you telling me that you come back to the use of a
dualism approach as the occasion allowed. It is a choice made by a non-dualism thinker at various times in which this dualism position is appropriate , and useful......if I understood you correctly.
At the same time, Iagree that it indeed does appear that I have begged the question, and probably , in the last analysis, it is a
Freudian Slip on my part.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Sep, 2004 11:12 pm
A Freudian slip is what I suspected, but I thought it might be constructive to mention it as a begging of the question anyway. Smile
0 Replies
 
alikimr
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Sep, 2004 11:39 pm
twyvel:
Your interesting post, as always , is most informative re your belief system. .........but how you can say that Sartre perceives consciousness
as "nothing" is beyond my grasp.
And your insistance that 'consciousness is seperate from the objects it perceives is an
illusion' , begs the question that you surely are not
saying that the Star that my consciousness perceives in the sky are one and the same thing ...
that the Star in the sky and the Star which is perceived located in my consciousnes are one and the same thing?
Or do you mean that it is seemingly so?
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Sep, 2004 11:49 pm
If a freudian slip is accidentally telling the truth it's not quite the same as begging the question.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Sep, 2004 11:53 pm
Twyvel, that was a gem. Very thoughtful, or if you like thoughtless.
Sartre's observation that "The observing self, no-self ( consciousness) has to be completely free of all objectification to allow for objectification to take place" is clearly borne out by our inability to do things adequately while self-conscious. The observing self is like a gun that by its nature cannot shoot itself.

I would make a small modification of your powerful statement that when we recognize that observations are direct and unmediated, we bring our ego "to the edge of its annihilation." It seems to me that at the moment of intense realization of this immediacy the ego IS anihilated.

One more point. To me the noumena, the thing-in-itself, is not, so to speak, the soul of the world of objects. That which stands against the so-called subject. I'm sure you realize that. The noumena refers to the ontological status of the ENTIRE process, the cosmic process, which operates to create (among the countless other processes) the experience "I" have of "phenomena." In reality there is ONLY noumena. Or as they put it metaphorically, "There is only God." Nietzsche argues that there is only phenomena, not noumena. I suggest, at least at this moment, the reverse. There is only noumena; as Sartre says "the in-itself is an abstraction without consciousness but its being is not an abstraction." Well, it is insofar as we are thinking it. Phenomena, which is what we say we experience, is no more than manifestation of what happens noumenally. I don't think I contradict myself to add that noumena is not BEHIND appearance; it is the reality of appearance; it is the on-going creation of appearance. We think we see phenomena as the appearnce of some underlying process, but it IS that process, and it includes us. There is "nothing but" the process which is unitary (noumena=phenomena=us).
I'm sure there is much that needs adjustment here.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 12:07 am
Alikimr, my vision, called star, is me; I AM my experience, not something it happens to. Remember the dictum, "That art thou"? It has nothing to do with the "objective" event called a distant star; it is about my nature, which is, among many other things, "star image." Even when I think analytically (astronomically) ABOUT a distant star, that thinking experience IS me, not just something going on in MY head.

Twyvel, I thought Alikimr was begging the question; he said it was a Freudian slip. I accept that, but I'm glad I corrected the presumed question-begging action, even if it is now only a hypothetical matter.

I'm off to bed guys. Thanks for the stimulation. Now let's see if I can sleep.
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 12:14 am
Yes, I mean it actually. The star in the sky and the sky are one with consciousness. That's what nondualism means, not-two.
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 12:25 am
Great post JLN. I think I am starting to grasp your noumena…….

Form a first reading it appears you are saying that noumena = consciousness, or unmanifest, neti neti, that which observes, which is….....Well as you I am off to bed………..
0 Replies
 
BoGoWo
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 07:51 am
for every universal 'event' there has to be a 'frame of reference' within which that 'event' can occur.

the event can be a thought, or the implosion of nothingness into everythingness; no matter, without the 'frame of reference' there is no event, no actor, no reaction, no phenomenon.

Nothingness is the 'frame of reference' within which (wow, "within nothingness"!!) consciousness can function, applying itself to (creating? and) making 'sense' of 'reality'!
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 10:51 am
BoGoWo

A little modification would be consciousness IS that nothing. (consciousness is not something that can be said to be in something else).
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 10:54 am
alikimr

Quote:
…but how you can say that Sartre perceives consciousness
as "nothing" is beyond my grasp.



I don't think it's beyond your grasp alikimr.

Sartre wasn't only talking from the intellect (in my view), he was speaking from, being informed by his own observations. He's simple saying what is obvious to everyone, Consciousness recognizes itself as >not being the object<; consciousness is recognized as not being this screen.

-as not being thoughts.
-as not being body sensations.
-as not being sensual perceptions.
-as not being anything observable.

Consciousness is awareness of itself as non-being, as not being an in it-self. When confront with objects consciousness is a negation, and Sartre calls that negation or absence of objecthood, non-being, as opposed to the beingness, the objectness of objects.

So consciousness is always absent. Now I don't know how much further Sartre got, as he does retain an in it-self; that which exists independent of observations.

Note: that it is obvious that consciousness is not the object, that it appears to stand back form objects, that consciousness appears to not be in the world, is an illusion. And that is precisely the dualism that we are addressing.
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 11:07 am
JLNobody

Quote:
Sartre's observation that "The observing self, no-self ( consciousness) has to be completely free of all objectification to allow for objectification to take place" is clearly borne out by our inability to do things adequately while self-conscious. The observing self is like a gun that by its nature cannot shoot itself.



As I mentioned to alikimr, I am not sure how far Sartre got with his insights, so we/I might be making developments that he did not, though your/my above doesn't appear as a stretch to me.

Quote:
I would make a small modification of your powerful statement that when we recognize that observations are direct and unmediated, we bring our ego "to the edge of its annihilation." It seems to me that at the moment of intense realization of this immediacy the ego IS anihilated.
Quote:
One more point. To me the noumena, the thing-in-itself, is not, so to speak, the soul of the world of objects. That which stands against the so-called subject. I'm sure you realize that. The noumena refers to the ontological status of the ENTIRE process, the cosmic process, which operates to create (among the countless other processes) the experience "I" have of "phenomena." In reality there is ONLY noumena. Or as they put it metaphorically, "There is only God." Nietzsche argues that there is only phenomena, not noumena. I suggest, at least at this moment, the reverse. There is only noumena; as Sartre says "the in-itself is an abstraction without consciousness but its being is not an abstraction." Well, it is insofar as we are thinking it. Phenomena, which is what we say we experience, is no more than manifestation of what happens noumenally. I don't think I contradict myself to add that noumena is not BEHIND appearance; it is the reality of appearance; it is the on-going creation of appearance. We think we see phenomena as the appearnce of some underlying process, but it IS that process, and it includes us. There is "nothing but" the process which is unitary (noumena=phenomena=us).
I'm sure there is much that needs adjustment here.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 11:54 am
Twyvel, you say:

"Yes, I mean it actually. The star in the sky and the sky are one with consciousness. That's what nondualism means, not-two."

I agree, ultimately. Since all is One, I am that star I see, and all the stars I do not see. What I was talking about was a single momentary aspect of my being, the experience of light given off billions of years ago by one particular star. I am such particular experiences as well as everything else. I like to think, for better or for worse, of my experience as Atman and everthing else (including my experience) as Brahma. Of course, the distinction is purely analytical since Atman=Brahma.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 01:58 pm
0 Replies
 
alikimr
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 09:12 pm
JLN and twyvel:
It was interesting reading JLN's approach to
noumena and phenomena,particularly when JLN
deviated from the Kantian and Sartre view of the"thing-in-itself' approach when he said there is ONLY noumena. JLN's synthesis is very puzzling,
since he literally equates noumena to phenomena,
(i.e., noumena=phenomena=us).
As twyvel rightly noted, we have to be careful with word use. I couldn't agree more, although in JLN's case this situation is by far the exception rather than the rule.
I am beginning to realize that the Buddhist approach, by necessity, (since intuitive knowledge is so basic ), takes liberties with ordinary word usage....but in some cases like this one, how is it
possible to present a coherent argument if the word 'noumena' is equated to the word 'phenomena
when the meaning of the word noumena is exactly
OPPOSITE to the meaning of the word phenomena?
Any good dictionary of the English language will so attest. As a matter of fact Webster's actually defines noumena as "opposite to phenomena', and
defines phenomena as an "object known through the senses rather than thought or intuition"
We have a problem of communication here that makes it difficult to fully understand your position.
In twyvel's post he states that the Kantian 'thing-in-itself'is distinct and seperate from consciousness, (no argument there), and that "'the Universe is prior to consciousness", (no argument there). To me that means that 'the-thing-in-itself'
exists without the need of a noumena interpretation/involvement with which I totally agree but it appears to me that it contradicts an earlier stated position when he asserts that it is the
noumena that allows for phenomena.
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Sep, 2004 10:52 pm
Alikimr, I really appreciate your thoughtful reservations. When your understanding falls short of our intentions you force us to review and refine both our thinking and our presentation. That's the great benefit to come from A2K dialogs.
Although the linguistic meaning of phenomena is "exactly opposite to that of the word noumena" I do not feel bound to take this linguistic opposition as an aspect of reality itself. Phenomena and noumena, like subject and object and cause and effect are linguistic or analyltical distinctions which obviously serve us in many ways. But such dichotomies are artificial; they are good to think with, depending on the problem at hand. But they are not adequate as descriptions, given the level of our discussion. As you say, the intuitive approach of Buddhist discourse is essentially what Twyvel and I are about here. This requires linguistic liberties, no doubt. When I say phenomena and noumena are the same, I mean they are an artificial (yet sometimes useful) distinction, a bifurcation of unitary reality into two parts. Up and down do not exist in absolute terms, only within certain frames of reference. As BoGoWo put it, "for every universal 'event' there has to be a 'frame of reference' within which that 'event' can occur.... without the 'frame of reference' there is no event, no actor, no reaction, no phenomenon."
As I understand him, all MEANINGFULNESS, whether that of an event, actor, reaction, phenomenon, anything and everything that is meaningful, takes its meaning in large part from the frame of reference of the thinker who is ascribing the meaning. To me that means that the world is not meaningful without human ascriptions against a background of human frames of reference. And this applies to the grand concepts of phenomena and noumena (and everything else). To me there is only the unitary and ultimately mysterious universe (and not just the observable universe). This unitary reality is my ultimate frame of reference in this discussion (and in meditative practice). As such, I say there is no REAL difference between noumena and phenomena. We can treat them as conceptually distinct and ontologically different, but that does not make them so, ultimately.
So, Alikimr, in order to pick up on what I'm trying (correctly or incorrectly) to express, you must at least temporarily suspend the faith of dualism required by ordinary logic and remember that I am here trying to provide a unified non-dualistic "description", and thus forgive the illogicality of its structure. I know I should be careful with my words, and I am. Heaven knows I am trying to be very careful, especially because logic and language are not on my side. My perspective is not difficult to understand because it is deep or complex, only because we are not used to its non-dualism, its insistence that every evaluation, comparison, opposition we make is artificial and relative, and irrelevant to any attempt to touch what is absolute.
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 6 Sep, 2004 12:22 pm
alikimr


I don't' agree with or believe in Kant's noumena, or thing-in-itself, I merely pointed it out as being a position that I thought JLN held at one point. It was a kind of question.

Anyway I think JLNobody and I are farely close in our insistence that that which sees is that which is seen etc., which of course contradicts dualism. That's not a surprise, I hope, Smile
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Mon 6 Sep, 2004 12:49 pm
Tywvel, you say that "that which sees is that which is seen." How similar in spirit is that to Meister Eckhart's "We see god with the same eye that God sees us"?
0 Replies
 
twyvel
 
  1  
Reply Mon 6 Sep, 2004 02:57 pm
Yes that's a famous sayiing of Eckhart's and quite beautiful....I imagine it turns some theists heads around.
0 Replies
 
 

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