@joefromchicago,
How can I be "blurring the distinction" if I assert that "reality" is a
word which in non-philosophical parlance merely denotes agreement between consensual observers as to statements about "what is the case" (for them)?
Are you denying that the word is
functionally used that way in those contexts (examples given) ? Are you denying that such contexts involve a mutual subject-object interdependency which is antithesis of the
naive realisitic option of "reality" as a state independent of observers or context ?
How can there be "a distinction" if I (like Rorty
et al) axiomatically reject
as functionally meaningless any difference
you may attempt to draw between the phrases "statements of what is the case" and "what is the case".