@reasoning logic,
Attempts at brevity can admittedly appear cryptic.
My interpretation of Socrates' "wisdom" was that he had an intuitive grasp of Godels incompleteness theorem, which in simplistic terms might read "we cannot establish the
ultimate truth of anything, since all axioms involve further axioms ad infinitum.
Now the concept of "intuition" is by definition "metalogical" insofar that it does not
derive from axioms...it postulates them. On the basis of the postulation of "the ether" (an invisible fluidic medium for wave transmission) James Clerk Maxwell was able to derive equations which successfully predicted the behavior of electro-magnetic waves, and those equations are still used today. Later experiments (Michelson -Morley etc) led to the rejection of the "reality of the ether" despite its previous axiomatic role in the derivation of wave mechanics.
So this leads to the pertinent question what is this stuff "knowledge" and its relationship to the word "ignorance". Should teachers of Maxwell's equations point out the "fictitious nature" of their derivation or "ignore" it ? The fact that the equations can be accounted for by
later (relativistic and quantum) developments glosses over the point that such further
intuitive developments were themselves prompted in the context of the "reality" of using those equations.
The philosophical conclusion which makes sense to me is that "knowledge"
(like "truth") is "what works", and to ask the question "
why it works" leads to an inevitable infinite regress. So to claim "ignorance" of "why" is vacuous, and may be educationally inhibitive, even though it appears "wise" to the philosophically unsophisticated.