17
   

Time simply does not exist

 
 
Razzleg
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Aug, 2012 12:34 am
@Cyracuz,
Cyracuz wrote:

Nothing happens 'outside of time' for the simple reason that any two objects that occupy the same space establish time relative to each other. But this time is not a fixed value. It is relative to space and speed and direction and viewpoint.

But our perception of linear time, that is, the idea that the order of events we perceive is how reality unfolds, isn't necessarily accurate.


i'm not defending the notion of linear time -- as noted in my response to JLN, i am totally amenable to multiple (ie non-linear) notions of time as a result of observations of "times". My argument critiques "time" regarded as a superficial product of thought and experience rather than an integral condition of the same.

Your use of the words "relative", "speed", "direction" and "view[point]" do not imply an atemporal or even a time-critical perspective --all are sub-temporal terms. Relativity theory, as represented by Einstein, doesn't allow for objects occupying the "same" space in anyway except relative within time; this is not the same thing as that "space-time" relationship and proximity to innately allow the nearness of two objects to determine the affect or the speed of their non-involved processes.

Cyracuz wrote:

Quote:
Here's a thought experiment far afield from our previous mental exercises: i've had five relatives die of cancer in my adult life; and seven more have survived it, so far. Statistically, i'll have to be treated for it as well, to some degree. At each stage of the mutation, both the victims and survivors of this disease were unaware and then made aware of the progress of that disease. While it was never predictable, the development of the cancer was always measurable in hindsight...and their death or illness as a cause of it was certain -- did they die of their perceptions?


This implies that there is a difference between the illness and the perception of it. But is there a difference between an object and the perception of that object?


You've got a brass pair, i'll give you that... all my aunt perceived was an ache that started in her hip area and that slowly spread over time into an excruciating agony around her entire body. But she didn't die of "pain". i received a more comprehensive diagnosis of the "illness" by speaking to her doctors and googling the **** out of her condition. My simple answer to your question is, "yes" (which is far more of an answer than you've given any of my questions to you in this thread.) Still, let me inspect your apparent counter-example:

Cyracuz wrote:

I heard of another experiment. Nerve impulses take approx. 80 milliseconds to reach the mind from the fingertips. Then there was a button that turned on a light, and the light was set to come on 40 ms after the button was pushed. The test subjects said that the light came on before they pushed the button.
That happened because the electricity traveled from the switch to the light bulb faster than the nerve impulses traveled from the finger to the brain.


Doesn't your example only imply that events proceed each other faster than the individual's perceptions can grasp? In my prior post, i wasn't trying to prove that the mind's observation of change was the sole evidence of time, but that even the mind's failure to register the causal structures involved could not but evidence the results of temporal processes beyond its experiential range. Your "experiment" confirms this hypothesis. Time seems a condition of experience, even if those times have not been experienced.

As for the real-world examples of my relatives' deaths, perhaps you mistake the meaning of mystery vs. unpredictable object. In ye olden days a person could die of cancer without knowing the exact cause of her malady, but given modern means of observation, cancer is detectable. It is not, however, predictable -- that is, the thoroughness of the observation is not indicative of the development of the cellular mutation, despite treatment. The detection and the surveillance of the disease is in no way determinative or constitutive of the disease's being or progress -- it often kills the subject regardless and it develops independently of observation.

Perhaps you would be shocked by how often a heart disease kills the subject without any prior observation whatsoever, and cancer patients are sometimes both unable to track the progress of the disease themselves and not told how dire their circumstances are. A heart defect, whether acquired or otherwise, is often undetectable; cancer's affects are often sudden and deadly. A disease need not be observed to be proven "real".

Cyracuz wrote:

Nothing happens 'outside of time' for the simple reason that any two objects that occupy the same space establish time relative to each other. But this time is not a fixed value. It is relative to space and speed and direction and viewpoint.


You say that nothing happens "outside of time" without the condition of at least two objects, their relationship, speed and direction. If those are your "simple reasons" then where is the argument? Please, provide an example of any situation in which most of those elements do not present themselves? If you cannot demonstrate that circumstance, then i will insist that "time" is not an arbitrary, but an essential condition of their occurrence.

cicerone imposter wrote:

Your wrote,
Quote:
but not dogmatic, empirical bent.


What do you mean by that? Isn't it the object of discussions to challenge what is said rather than attack the writer?


i's write: That's a weak response to my trolling. Here's my full paragraph:

razzleg wrote:

Nice touch. i don't know if we totally agree, but we agree so far... and i appreciate your contributions to this thread. It's nice to read a post from someone with a reasonable and enthusiastic, but not dogmatic, empirical bent.


The object of discussions, seems to me, to be to reach a consensus; and my compliment to sibilia, while completely representative of my personal perspective, was also indicative of a willingness to reach just such a consensus despite the unlikelyhood of total agreement. That is, that while i was not sure that we would ultimately agree on the details of any one subject, we might at least agree on the conditions, or at least some basic rules of debate, that precede such an agreement.

Challenging the writer in the process of seeking a consensus in what is said does not seem antithetical to discussion to me. But i can't speak to what you are out to get from such an exchange...
Razzleg
 
  2  
Reply Wed 15 Aug, 2012 12:48 am
@Razzleg,
Cyracuz wrote:

Nothing happens 'outside of time' for the simple reason that any two objects that occupy the same space establish time relative to each other. But this time is not a fixed value. It is relative to space and speed and direction and viewpoint.

But our perception of linear time, that is, the idea that the order of events we perceive is how reality unfolds, isn't necessarily accurate.


i'm not defending the notion of linear time -- as noted in my response to JLN, i am totally amenable to multiple (ie non-linear) notions of time as a result of observations of "times". My argument critiques "time" regarded as a superficial product of thought and experience rather than an integral condition of the same.

Your use of the words "relative", "speed", "direction" and "view[point]" do not imply an atemporal or even a time-critical perspective --all are sub-temporal terms. Relativity theory, as represented by Einstein, doesn't allow for objects' occupying the "same" space in anyway except relative within time; your stated position, which implies that "space" determines "time", is not the same thing as "space-time" relationship/proximity. Nor does space-time imply that the nearness of two objects innately determines the affect or the speed of each objects' non-relationally involved ("internal") processes.

Cyracuz wrote:

Quote:
Here's a thought experiment far afield from our previous mental exercises: i've had five relatives die of cancer in my adult life; and seven more have survived it, so far. Statistically, i'll have to be treated for it as well, to some degree. At each stage of the mutation, both the victims and survivors of this disease were unaware and then made aware of the progress of that disease. While it was never predictable, the development of the cancer was always measurable in hindsight...and their death or illness as a cause of it was certain -- did they die of their perceptions?


This implies that there is a difference between the illness and the perception of it. But is there a difference between an object and the perception of that object?


You've got a brass pair, i'll give you that... all my aunt perceived was an ache that started in her hip area and that slowly spread over time into an excruciating agony around her entire body. But she didn't die of "pain". i received a more comprehensive diagnosis of the "illness" by speaking to her doctors and googling the **** out of her condition. My simple answer to your question is, "yes" (which is far more of an answer than you've given any of my questions to you in this thread.) Still, let me inspect your apparent counter-example:

Cyracuz wrote:

I heard of another experiment. Nerve impulses take approx. 80 milliseconds to reach the mind from the fingertips. Then there was a button that turned on a light, and the light was set to come on 40 ms after the button was pushed. The test subjects said that the light came on before they pushed the button.
That happened because the electricity traveled from the switch to the light bulb faster than the nerve impulses traveled from the finger to the brain.


Doesn't your example only imply that events proceed each other faster than the individual's perceptions can grasp? In my prior post, i wasn't trying to prove that the mind's observation of change was the sole evidence of time, but that even the mind's failure to register the causal structures involved could not but evidence the results of temporal processes beyond its experiential range. Your "experiment" confirms this hypothesis. Time seems a condition of experience, even if those times have not been experienced.

As for the real-world examples of my relatives' deaths, perhaps you mistake the meaning of mystery vs. unpredictable object. In ye olden days a person could die of cancer without knowing the exact cause of her malady, but given modern means of observation, cancer is detectable. It is not, however, predictable -- that is, the thoroughness of the observation is not indicative of the development of the cellular mutation, despite treatment. The detection and the surveillance of the disease is in no way determinative or constitutive of the disease's being or progress -- it often kills the subject regardless and it develops independently of observation.

Perhaps you would be shocked by how often a heart disease kills the subject without any prior observation whatsoever, and cancer patients are sometimes both unable to track the progress of the disease themselves and not told how dire their circumstances are. A heart defect, whether acquired or otherwise, is often undetectable; cancer's affects are often sudden and deadly. A disease need not be observed to be proven "real".

Cyracuz wrote:

Nothing happens 'outside of time' for the simple reason that any two objects that occupy the same space establish time relative to each other. But this time is not a fixed value. It is relative to space and speed and direction and viewpoint.


You say that nothing happens "outside of time" without the condition of at least two objects, their relationship, speed and direction. If those are your "simple reasons" then where is the argument? Please, provide an example of any situation in which most of those elements do not present themselves? If you cannot demonstrate that circumstance, then i will insist that "time" is not an arbitrary, but an essential condition of their occurrence.

cicerone imposter wrote:

Your wrote,
Quote:
but not dogmatic, empirical bent.


What do you mean by that? Isn't it the object of discussions to challenge what is said rather than attack the writer?


i's write: That's a weak response to my trolling. Here's my full paragraph:

razzleg wrote:

Nice touch. i don't know if we totally agree, but we agree so far... and i appreciate your contributions to this thread. It's nice to read a post from someone with a reasonable and enthusiastic, but not dogmatic, empirical bent.


The object of discussions, seems to me, to be to reach a consensus; and my compliment to sibilia, while completely representative of my personal perspective, was also indicative of a willingness to reach just such a consensus despite the unlikelyhood of total agreement. That is, that while i was not sure that we would ultimately agree on the details of any one subject, we might at least agree on the conditions, or at least some basic rules of debate, that precede such an agreement.

Challenging the writer in the process of seeking a consensus in what is said does not seem antithetical to discussion to me. But i can't speak to what you are out to get from such an exchange...
0 Replies
 
sibilia
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Aug, 2012 06:42 am
@Razzleg,
Quote:
Nice touch. i don't know if we totally agree, but we agree so far... and i appreciate your contributions to this thread. It's nice to read a post from someone with a reasonable and enthusiastic, but not dogmatic, empirical bent.

Thanks, and besides the reality is the world outside our minds, we must look objectively at the reality.

Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Wed 15 Aug, 2012 04:14 pm
@sibilia,
Quote:
the reality is the world outside our minds, we must look objectively at the reality.


I think we all understand the idea of objectivity. I find it ironic, though, that you have such a subjective approach ("reality is outside our minds"), while believing that it's the objective view.

But it is not. There is no way you can test the truth of that statement in such a way that everyone who does so gets the same result every time. This is a fundamental flaw in the concept of objectivity.
north
 
  1  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 03:46 pm
@Cyracuz,
Quote:
@sibilia, Quote: the reality is the world outside our minds, we must look objectively at the reality.
Quote:
I think we all understand the idea of objectivity. I find it ironic, though, that you have such a subjective approach ("reality is outside our minds"), while believing that it's the objective view.
Quote:
But it is not. There is no way you can test the truth of that statement in such a way that everyone who does so gets the same result every time. This is a fundamental flaw in the concept of objectivity.
disagree Cyracuz did not all at the olyimpics agree with all events that were presented as they were pool is a pool , court is a court , a soccer field is soccer field etc objectively
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 04:21 pm
@north,
I'm thinking that sibilia's idea of "objectivity" is a bit confused. Objectivity is not subjective.
north
 
  1  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 04:46 pm
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:
I'm thinking that sibilia's idea of "objectivity" is a bit confused.

ahh... I havn't followed for a bit ... so I'm behind

Quote:
Objectivity is not subjective.


true
0 Replies
 
Cyracuz
 
  0  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 06:04 pm
@north,
Quote:
pool is a pool , court is a court , a soccer field is soccer field etc objectively


That is a matter of social agreement. I don't play soccer, and I would see no harm in using a soccer field to have a barbecue. To me it's just a lawn. Any soccer players would probably disagree, so I do my grilling elsewhere.
cicerone imposter
 
  0  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 06:20 pm
@Cyracuz,
Everything is a "social agreement" based on language. There is a difference between objective and subjective identification of things which doesn't change with language. A ball in any language is still a ball.
JLNobody
 
  0  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 10:42 pm
@cicerone imposter,
C.I., we can say that a "ball" is more fundamentally a cluster of atoms/molecules in a particular configuration. Some societies would not recognize it as a "ball" if they do not have that concept. This does not contradict your statement, which I accept, that "Everything is a 'social agreement' based on language".
cicerone imposter
 
  0  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 10:46 pm
@JLNobody,
Come on, JLN, most people who see a ball doesn't break it down to your level of "thinking."
JLNobody
 
  2  
Reply Sat 18 Aug, 2012 11:04 pm
@cicerone imposter,
I know, but I was "doing philosophy" not everyday talk.
0 Replies
 
Razzleg
 
  2  
Reply Sun 19 Aug, 2012 01:35 am
@Cyracuz,
Cyracuz wrote:

Quote:
pool is a pool , court is a court , a soccer field is soccer field etc objectively


That is a matter of social agreement. I don't play soccer, and I would see no harm in using a soccer field to have a barbecue. To me it's just a lawn. Any soccer players would probably disagree, so I do my grilling elsewhere.


Just out of curiosity, given the importance that social agreement seems to carry in this discussion, if you and the soccer player (of course, in many parts of the world she wouldn't accept any other title than "football player") couldn't agree as to what that stretch of ground should be called -- the what would it be? If its existence is entirely determined by its social significance, then given a irreconcilable dispute as to its purpose-- won't it just cease to exist?

cicerone imposter wrote:

Everything is a "social agreement" based on language. There is a difference between objective and subjective identification of things which doesn't change with language. A ball in any language is still a ball.


What an interesting collection of contradictions. How is anything, much less everything, a "social agreement" if the distinction between subjective and objective doesn't alter with language? Doesn't that seem to imply that the distinction between the two, at least in your model, precedes language, and that the structures of subjectivity and objectivity lie beyond the semantic definitions of language?...just a thought.
Cyracuz
 
  1  
Reply Sun 19 Aug, 2012 05:41 am
@Razzleg,
Quote:
If its existence is entirely determined by its social significance, then given a irreconcilable dispute as to its purpose-- won't it just cease to exist?


I don't follow your logic. If there was dispute about it's purpose, it wouldn't be none of the proposed things, it would be all.
There was actually a similar problem every winter during my childhood. The best slope to ride down with our sleds was also the only road cars could drive to get to the area we lived in. Needless to say this caused problems, the least of which being that when we came down while cars drove up it could get dangerous.
Then they sanded the slope, so that cars could get up even on the snow, and that was it for the sleds. It happened the same every year.
(This was in the early eighties, before it was dangerous for a child to get out of bed without a helmet on.)
cicerone imposter
 
  0  
Reply Sun 19 Aug, 2012 10:41 am
@Razzleg,
You wrote,
Quote:
What an interesting collection of contradictions. How is anything, much less everything, a "social agreement" if the distinction between subjective and objective doesn't alter with language? Doesn't that seem to imply that the distinction between the two, at least in your model, precedes language, and that the structures of subjectivity and objectivity lie beyond the semantic definitions of language?...just a thought.


No, because only humans make the distinction. Only humans make the observation. Without humans, it doesn't make any difference.
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 19 Aug, 2012 10:01 pm
@cicerone imposter,
C.I., Wink
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Sun 19 Aug, 2012 10:16 pm
@JLNobody,
I heard on TV today Joseph Campbell's distinction between the ETERNAL (or timeless present) and the EVERLASTING linear time that goes on forever and ever.
0 Replies
 
north
 
  1  
Reply Mon 20 Aug, 2012 02:08 pm
@Cyracuz,

Quote:
pool is a pool , court is a court , a soccer field is soccer field etc objectively


Quote:
That is a matter of social agreement. I don't play soccer, and I would see no harm in using a soccer field to have a barbecue. To me it's just a lawn. Any soccer players would probably disagree, so I do my grilling elsewhere.


so would you barbecue in a pool ?
0 Replies
 
Razzleg
 
  1  
Reply Mon 20 Aug, 2012 11:28 pm
@cicerone imposter,
cicerone imposter wrote:

You wrote,
Quote:
What an interesting collection of contradictions. How is anything, much less everything, a "social agreement" if the distinction between subjective and objective doesn't alter with language? Doesn't that seem to imply that the distinction between the two, at least in your model, precedes language, and that the structures of subjectivity and objectivity lie beyond the semantic definitions of language?...just a thought.


No, because only humans make the distinction. Only humans make the observation. Without humans, it doesn't make any difference.


So language, which on your model doesn't seem to make a distinction between objective and subjective, exists without humans? Just checking?
cicerone imposter
 
  1  
Reply Tue 21 Aug, 2012 12:06 am
@Razzleg,
Language used by humans interpret what we see in our environment. Without human interpretation, objective/subjective doesn't exist.

That's correct; it doesn't have any meaning without humans applying their interpretation to it. Humans create our own reality.
 

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