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Sharpe
 
Reply Sun 8 Jan, 2012 02:54 pm
Is it possible for the state or existance where everything is possible, even though the existance of such a state would also make it possible for everything to also be not possible. But if it were not possible how would it be possible for it to have ever defined the absolute with out reference.

URL: http://able2know.org/reply/topic-148090
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fresco
 
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Reply Mon 9 Jan, 2012 01:08 am
@Sharpe,
I have argued extensively on this forum that "existence" is relative, never absolute. Thus the existence of "a thing " implies the existence of "a thinger".There is only co-existence.Things and thingers are ontologically co-extensive.
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