@anthony1312002,
Thanks for your reply, Anthony, but you are missing an essential of the biblical representation of slavery.
You mentioned
Quote:But there was another interesting provision in the law. This servitude or slavery could last for only 7 years. At the end of 7 years the persons that sold themselves into slavery were to be set free without penalty. Please see Deuteronomy 15:1-9.
Fine...but that applied ONLY to Jews who were slaves to Jews. Jews who owned slaves who were non-Jews were slaves forever.
"Slaves, male and female, you may indeed possess, provided you BUY them from among the neighboring nations. You may also BUY them from among the aliens who reside with you and from their children who are born and reared in your land. Such slaves YOU MAY OWN AS CHATTELS, and leave to your sons as their hereditary property, MAKING THEM PERPETUAL SLAVES. But you shall not lord it harshly over any of the Israelites, your kinsmen." Leviticus 25:44ff
So the fact that the provision exists does not mitigate against the slavery being actually discussed here.
Quote:Here is another example. In the Bible book of Philemon, the Christian disciple Paul refers to a certain O'nes'imus who served as a slave to a disciple named Philemon. After learning the truth of the Bible O'nes'imus also became a disciple of Christ. From that point forward the relationship between O'nes'imus and Philemon takes an interesting turn. Please see the book of Philemon. The entire book is only 25 verses long and makes for very interesting reading, providing some insight into the type of slavery then in existance.
I have already read Philemon several times...and have discussed it in detail on several occasions on the Internet. I come away from the letter convinced that Paul saw absolutely nothing wrong with slavery. If you see something in the letter that indicates that Paul thought slavery was immoral or prohibited in any way, let's discuss it. I think no such reading can be logically made.
Quote:To be sure the slavery that I think most people are talking about today differs greatly from that which was practiced then. For example, during the reign of the Roman empire slaves could purchase their freedom after meeting certain requirements. A certain Roman governor by the name of Felix, who began his tenure around 52 C.E, was at one time a slave who was able to purchase his freedom.This was also practiced in early Europe as the term, endentured servant was then used. These ones could also, after meeting certain requirements purchase their right to freedom. Taking these factors into account might help to explain why Jesus is not recorded as having spoken out against the slavery of his day.
The essentials of the slavery are identical. A slave-owner OWNED the slave...could do with it pretty much what he wanted to do...could treat it as a chattel...could separate it from its kin...and could bequeath it to an heir.
The notion that slavery was much different is suspect, Anthony.
Quote:But the type of slavery that we are sure Jesus will address is that which completely denies a person any opportunity to gain their freedom.
Why on Earth would he??? The god of the Bible...Jesus' father...the god Jesus worshiped...says that there is absolutely nothing wrong with slavery...especially the kind that denies a person any opportunity to gain freedom. Why would he?
Quote:Thus, to define my answer more accurately, which I apologzie to everyone for not doing so earlier, it is the slavery that completely denegrates, the objective of which is to never allow the person to gain freedom, a slavery that strips a person of all hope, dignity and respect. It is this type of slavery that we are sure Jesus will do away with.
But, Anthony, that is precisely the kind of slavery the god of the Bible...the god Jesus worshiped said is completely permissible and is moral.