Mon 22 Dec, 2003 05:18 pm
this sounds totally like a very bad thing to have done:
I have a friend who found a foreclosed home that the gov't is owner of. He filed a declaration of domicle and moved in. He has been living there for a month now. He is now seeking the deed to said house.
I have NO knowledge of this (except that people use a declaration of domicile when they've moved to another state).
What do you know about this? My gut feeling is that my friend is in for some big trouble....does anyone know otherwise?
I cannot offer you any information, Boss, but i do think you might ask one of the moderators to move this to the legal forum, in which i believe you can get first class advice . . .
It varies from state to state. In some New England states, the equivalent of squatters rights is recognized after a certain period of tenure. I've forgotten what the actual legal expression is. Jespah can probably provide it. But I'm not sure whether a decleration of domicile is applicable here. In New Hampshire, for example, the occupancy has to be 'notorious,' in other words known by all as a borderline illegality. Seems to me that filing a declaration of domicile would negate this notoriety.
I believe the general rule is that one cannot acquire property from the government through adverse possession. If the government holds the deed, it is the owner. As such, your friend can squat on that property until kingdom come: he will never become the owner.
The dude needs to vacate the premises. He's not going to get possession this way. He needs to pay his money like the rest of us. :-D
thanks y'all. this pretty much what i was thinking...
It totally differs state to state and it has the really different things to have in. Here is not any kind of rule you are looking for and the condition.