@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:
... Schopenhauer seems to be assuming here that if (or even, "because") it is not up to us what it is we want, but only up to us to do what we want...
Hey Ken,
I had to look this over a few times and think about it. Its been a while since Schopenhauer and I have been in each other's company, but yes; as you state above is precisely how I'd take it - barring any other qualifying details.
Whether or not this speaks to free will seems to be a non-issue (on the whole); however, if one believes their wants are - at least partially - formulated absent of ones' conscious will, then
in that way yes, there's a connection. Its been my experience that what we want (whether or not consciously realized) is not a
direct product of the will (prefrontal cortex). Wants are formulated in many areas of our brain based on many motivations. They surface only as they become urgent or relevant enough to our current circumstances. Or so I think...
So no, I wouldn't say we're necessarily compelled to want what we want, but that these are often a product of the subconscious/out of conscious sight could be contextualized to mean "compelled", in a sense.
kennethamy wrote:To make it a little clearer, S's argument seems to me this:
1. It is not up to us to want what we want.
Therefore, 2. we do not have free will even if it is up to us whether we do what we want.
Now, as it stands, this argument seems to me to be invalid. Even if the premise is true (which is questionable) the conclusion does not follow from the premise (or at least not without some further premise that needs to be supplied. But which one?).
Assuming the premise is true (which I'd partially accept). No, the 2nd one does not follow.
- It injects a presumption that the formulation of wants determine free will (which is only part of the picture).
- For the conclusion to be valid, wants would need to be somehow 'compulsory' - that the brain must somehow act on them (which is also false). If anyone, anywhere or any time, decided against a want, this would at that moment be disproved. We all decide against <this> or <that> want - at least from time to time.
For clarification (and since I see this to be a source of much confusion regarding the question of free will), Free Will - to me - exists when I can halt my actions, reign in my desires and step back to decide based on whatever factors I consciously choose to give weight. If I, at any time, can do this, then Free Will - at least to some extent - does exist.
One can question themselves into a pickle - semantic suggestions widening the hole and muddying the waters of clarity. I choose not to do this. That I am often "pushed", "prodded" or motivated towards one choice or another - by whatever means - does not negate free will. Suggestion and desire may steer me one way, but the choice remains.
All of this depends on ones' definition of free will: Without equivocation "mandatory" or simply being "motivated towards". I've seen a great number of excellent thinkers define free will both ways.
Thanks