34
   

Are Philosophers lost in the clouds?

 
 
TuringEquivalent
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 02:51 am
@hawkeye10,
hawkeye10 wrote:

Quote:
To some, philosophy is too esoteric to be useful. To others, it’s the basis of a good drinking party.
http://opinionator.blogs.nytimes.com/2010/06/27/lost-in-the-clouds/?hp

Two interesting opinions at the link above. My own opinion is that almost all modern Philosophy is useless, because it does not address the human condition. It is kinda like the sport of rhythmic gymnastics, to some interesting to watch for a few minutes every four years at the Olympics, otherwise it never has cause to cross our minds. The problem is not hopeless, but to solve it we need a new vision of what Philosophy is, and a whole boat load of new people to do it.

Opinions?


philosophy is a wonderful thing. It is analytic structure that is very beautiful. It is wrong to demand this analytic structure to give you hope, or make you less sad, or help you pay the rent. It is your job to learn about yourself. It is your job to make the most of your life. It is not for 'philosophy' to help you, or guide you.
talk72000
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 07:31 pm
There are three levels in research. The immediate, intermediate and ultimate. The immediate in technolgy would be the technicians in car repairs. The intermediate would be engineers who design vehicles and the ultimate in technolgy would be the scientists who formulate the equations. In philosophy the immediate would be journalists, lawyers and politicians who use philosophy for the operations of the state. The intermediate (natural) philosophers would be scientists and the ultimate would be the true philosophers. I feel many are engaging in the ultimate philosophy while their talents are elsewhere. They seem to be spinning their wheels.
de Silentio
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 07:45 pm
@TuringEquivalent,
TuringEquivalent wrote:


philosophy is a wonderful thing. It is analytic structure that is very beautiful.


The analytic structure of philosohy is beautiful in it's own right, but philosophy is way more than just analytic structure. See below.

Quote:
It is wrong to demand this analytic structure to give you hope, or make you less sad, or help you pay the rent. It is your job to learn about yourself. It is your job to make the most of your life. It is not for 'philosophy' to help you, or guide you.


To me, you are correct that the analytic structure of philosophy shouldn't provide hope, but I disagree that philosophy can't help you learn about yourself or aide in making life more enjoyable. Perhaps the analytical philosophies cannot do those things, but I think in a round about way they can. Either way, there are many aspects of philosophy that can very well aide an individual in the enjoyment of his life and in learning about himself. For example, studying some good ol' Existential Philosophy is a great way to learn about oneself.

Philosophy has certaintly made a positive impact on my life, but you don't need my story. Rather I will tell of Socrates. Socrates thought that the purpose of philosophy was to make one's soul "more good". To him, Philosophy was a way to perfect oneself and come closer to the "good". Socrtes states:

"a man who is good for anything ought not to calculate the chance of living or dying; he ought only to consider whether in doing anything he is doing right or wrong - acting the part of a good man or of a bad" (Apology).

What better way to find out "right and wrong" than with philosophy? Philosophy gives insight into life and human experience and enables man to understand himself and the world that he lives in*.

Philosohy is a part of life for the philosopher, not just a subject to be studied.

* When I use the words "man" and "himself", I am of course including women.
0 Replies
 
de Silentio
 
  2  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 08:00 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:

Of course, the deeper problem may be that you are just not interested in philosophy, but only in what you think to be philosophy. And that is still another problem.


If you don't mind me asking, what is your interest in philosophy?
0 Replies
 
Fido
 
  -1  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 08:37 pm
@talk72000,
talk72000 wrote:

There are three levels in research. The immediate, intermediate and ultimate. The immediate in technolgy would be the technicians in car repairs. The intermediate would be engineers who design vehicles and the ultimate in technolgy would be the scientists who formulate the equations. In philosophy the immediate would be journalists, lawyers and politicians who use philosophy for the operations of the state. The intermediate (natural) philosophers would be scientists and the ultimate would be the true philosophers. I feel many are engaging in the ultimate philosophy while their talents are elsewhere. They seem to be spinning their wheels.

You do not understand the situation at all and you are spinning...
0 Replies
 
HOBO phil
 
  0  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 08:41 pm
@hawkeye10,
I think philosophy deals with very general and very hard questions, and that through out the ages, the "easier" questions have branched off into specific sciences---which then percolates to engineering/medical applications that we call "useful". And what remain are still harder conundrums that we have not yet found a way, or a "science" to branch off to.
Talking about "usefulness": how useful, with respect to current day issues, can the study of string theory, or the study of black holes be to current day human sufferings? Therefore, there are many "useless" scientific pursuits also.
My take is this: philosophy deals with extremely hard problems...some are even so muddled and confused...but it doesn't mean it's "useless." We just have not found a way to clarify or solve philosophical issues yet.
Pemerson
 
  2  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 08:52 pm
I don't think philosophers are lost in the clouds so much as the rest of us grew more accustomed to keep it pithy for the past few decades, or so.

What those long, long posts can do to you...
0 Replies
 
Fido
 
  1  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 08:54 pm
@failures art,
failures art wrote:

I agree with you about the constitution. We think it's the greatest, but obviously it is imperfect. The fact that we can understand that it is imperfect, even if we can't create a perfect constitution, means that we can evaluate such thing that is a constitution.

I'd suggest evaluating it by its own stated goals. I think we do this without being told, and I think that's why we can find near consensus that it is not perfect.

A
R
T

In a life of a person a social form may not change in any perceptible fashion, and yet all the while the form is reformed, malformed really, to suit the purposes of those whose job it is to protect the form, and make it work... After a while the meaning and value is taken out of it, and it begins to feed on the life of the people, and when this happens either the people will revolt, and breath new life into their society, or they will be invaded and swallowed by some other, or younger people...

People cannot see their forms from the inside, but see all life through the lense of their forms... And Jeffereson was correct, that forms should not be changed for light and transient causes, but they must often be changed, and all of history has been the story of changing forms, first, their loss of value, and then their replacement... The life of a person is not a long time, but the forces of change are relentless... We should expect that old forms will not serve future generations, and put an expiration date on all forms... Marriage is a form... Say a marriage is only good for twenty years max; and then if people want to remarry, they can...

It does no good to carve anything in stone... Our government hides in megalithic structures, but it is an attempt to deny reality, and the reality is that nothing but faith supports the form, and that the people can, by a simple expression of will, simply brush the whole government aside and start new, with a new constitution, and there is where the problem lies...
0 Replies
 
Fido
 
  2  
Reply Wed 30 Jun, 2010 09:20 pm
@HOBO phil,
HOBO phil wrote:

I think philosophy deals with very general and very hard questions, and that through out the ages, the "easier" questions have branched off into specific sciences---which then percolates to engineering/medical applications that we call "useful". And what remain are still harder conundrums that we have not yet found a way, or a "science" to branch off to.
Talking about "usefulness": how useful, with respect to current day issues, can the study of string theory, or the study of black holes be to current day human sufferings? Therefore, there are many "useless" scientific pursuits also.
My take is this: philosophy deals with extremely hard problems...some are even so muddled and confused...but it doesn't mean it's "useless." We just have not found a way to clarify or solve philosophical issues yet.


You are correct; but the problem is not intractable.... Physics yeilds up answers much more reliable and regular than does moral philosophy... There is a reason people still read Ploto on Socrates, and it is because the questions he asked regarding morals remain unanswered... Yet clearly, he was trying to apply the logic of the mathematical/physical world to morals, which never works... To say, as Socrates said, that knowledge is virtue, meant that people could be taught morals...They can be, but not as one teaches math, by teaching the logic of it... Instead, people learn moral behavior before they are logical, but still old enough to learn...
Morals are natural to a point, innate, and instinctual, because we bond, and that bond, that natural attachment to others on an emotional level is not rational, and often demands much irrational behavior...

Immorality on the other hand, can always be justified, and is, which is to say: reasoned... It is not reason that causes one person to risk their life for another when life is the source of all meaning... When people behave morally, it is always irrational, so it cannot be taught... Because physical reality follows regular laws, it can be learned... But it is obvious that those who are the most rational are often the most immoral, and this suggest that reason itself, and science, are moral choices, and immoral ones at that..
0 Replies
 
guigus
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 04:29 am
@hawkeye10,
hawkeye10 wrote:

Quote:
To some, philosophy is too esoteric to be useful. To others, it’s the basis of a good drinking party.
http://opinionator.blogs.nytimes.com/2010/06/27/lost-in-the-clouds/?hp

Two interesting opinions at the link above. My own opinion is that almost all modern Philosophy is useless, because it does not address the human condition. It is kinda like the sport of rhythmic gymnastics, to some interesting to watch for a few minutes every four years at the Olympics, otherwise it never has cause to cross our minds. The problem is not hopeless, but to solve it we need a new vision of what Philosophy is, and a whole boat load of new people to do it.

Opinions?


It is amazing that the text you refer to begins talking about symbolic logic. I started a post in this forum regarding a reasoning of mine that begins with the assertion that "every truth must be true." There were two kinds of reaction to this: one telling me that my statement was a tautology; the other telling me it was false for being an instance of the "modal fallacy." This is the legacy of symbolic logic: taking whatever is true for truth itself. The new philosophy we need reads "truth" as "truthness." Traditional philosophy reads "truth" as "true things." When we read "truth" as if it were in the world, waiting for us to find it, we are locked into natural necessity. When we read "truth" as the truth itself of whatever is true, then we free ourselves by means of a necessity that is rather the need that a true statement, or true idea, or true memory, or whatever "truth" has of a state of affairs out there in the world to make it a truth. For the new philosophy we need, necessity itself is a relation, instead of a property. This is the only way to address the "human condition," since it resides precisely in the true statement side of the correspondence between a statement and a state of affairs.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 08:29 am
@guigus,
guigus wrote:

hawkeye10 wrote:

Quote:
To some, philosophy is too esoteric to be useful. To others, it’s the basis of a good drinking party.
http://opinionator.blogs.nytimes.com/2010/06/27/lost-in-the-clouds/?hp

Two interesting opinions at the link above. My own opinion is that almost all modern Philosophy is useless, because it does not address the human condition. It is kinda like the sport of rhythmic gymnastics, to some interesting to watch for a few minutes every four years at the Olympics, otherwise it never has cause to cross our minds. The problem is not hopeless, but to solve it we need a new vision of what Philosophy is, and a whole boat load of new people to do it.

Opinions?


It is amazing that the text you refer to begins talking about symbolic logic. I started a post in this forum regarding a reasoning of mine that begins with the assertion that "every truth must be true." There were two kinds of reaction to this: one telling me that my statement was a tautology; the other telling me it was false for being an instance of the "modal fallacy." This is the legacy of symbolic logic: taking whatever is true for truth itself. The new philosophy we need reads "truth" as "truthness." Traditional philosophy reads "truth" as "true things." When we read "truth" as if it were in the world, waiting for us to find it, we are locked into natural necessity. When we read "truth" as the truth itself of whatever is true, then we free ourselves by means of a necessity that is rather the need that a true statement, or true idea, or true memory, or whatever "truth" has of a state of affairs out there in the world to make it a truth. For the new philosophy we need, necessity itself is a relation, instead of a property. This is the only way to address the "human condition," since it resides precisely in the true statement side of the correspondence between a statement and a state of affairs.


I think someone should tell you that symbolic logic is merely an extension and elaboration of classical logic. It is not different from classical logic except for that, and it incorporates classical logic. You seem to believe that classical logic and symbolic logic are in conflict. But the truth is that symbolic logic is classical logic put more precisely, and further extended and elaborated on. There is no conflict. And everything that can be said in classical logic can also be said in symbolic logic, only more precisely. I thought you ought to know.
de Silentio
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 11:36 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:

I think someone should tell you that symbolic logic is merely an extension and elaboration of classical logic. It is not different from classical logic except for that, and it incorporates classical logic. You seem to believe that classical logic and symbolic logic are in conflict. But the truth is that symbolic logic is classical logic put more precisely, and further extended and elaborated on. There is no conflict. And everything that can be said in classical logic can also be said in symbolic logic, only more precisely. I thought you ought to know.


From what I understand, different "forms" of logic are differnet in three areas: Syntax, Semantics, and Deductive Theory. Thus, Categorical Logic, Propositional Logic, and Predicate logic all differ in those areas. These differences might translate to different applications and conclusions that are drawn between the three forms of logic that I mentioned, but I'm not sure on that one.

I don't know that much about symbolic logic, but my guess is that it has a different Syntax, Semantics, and Deductive Theory than classical logic and, thus, differs from classical logic in it's applications and conclusions.

Now, this doesn't necessarily mean that symbolic logic is not an extension of classical logic, but I think it does show that it is more than just an extension. However, because symbolic logic has a more precise syntax, semantics, and deductive theory than classical logic, I do think it means that symobolic logic can "say" (or rather desribe) more than classical logic. Describing more precisly is definitely describing differently and can lead to different conclusions.

(Disclaimer: I am in no way knowledgable about logic theory, so if I said something incorrect, I apologize. Thanks)
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 12:09 pm
@de Silentio,
de Silentio wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

I think someone should tell you that symbolic logic is merely an extension and elaboration of classical logic. It is not different from classical logic except for that, and it incorporates classical logic. You seem to believe that classical logic and symbolic logic are in conflict. But the truth is that symbolic logic is classical logic put more precisely, and further extended and elaborated on. There is no conflict. And everything that can be said in classical logic can also be said in symbolic logic, only more precisely. I thought you ought to know.


From what I understand, different "forms" of logic are differnet in three areas: Syntax, Semantics, and Deductive Theory. Thus, Categorical Logic, Propositional Logic, and Predicate logic all differ in those areas. These differences might translate to different applications and conclusions that are drawn between the three forms of logic that I mentioned, but I'm not sure on that one.

I don't know that much about symbolic logic, but my guess is that it has a different Syntax, Semantics, and Deductive Theory than classical logic and, thus, differs from classical logic in it's applications and conclusions.

Now, this doesn't necessarily mean that symbolic logic is not an extension of classical logic, but I think it does show that it is more than just an extension. However, because symbolic logic has a more precise syntax, semantics, and deductive theory than classical logic, I do think it means that symobolic logic can "say" (or rather desribe) more than classical logic. Describing more precisly is definitely describing differently and can lead to different conclusions.

(Disclaimer: I am in no way knowledgable about logic theory, so if I said something incorrect, I apologize. Thanks)


You can do more things with modern logic than with classical logic, and modern logic deals with issues in logic that classical logic either knew nothing about, or had only a dim idea of, like the decision problems that Godel and Church dealt with. But there is nothing inconsistent between classical logic and modern logic. It is just that modern logic can do more, and go more deeply. Describing precisely the same thing is not describing differently. An illustration is Arabic numbers versus Roman numbers. Roman numbering is unwieldy, and trying to multiply using Roman numerals is a nightmare. It can be done, but multiplication with Arabic numbers which are much more precise is far easier. Using modal logic to say what used to be said in natural language makes what we say far easier to understand, and to understand the relations among the various things we say. I hope you don't think that the invention of symbolic logic is simply a conceit. It is a vital aid in allowing us to understand better, and more deeply, what classic logic merely touched on. It is like the difference between trying to do mathematics in plain English, and doing mathematics in the language of numbers. For an illustration of how the use of logic is an important (even vital) aid to philosophy, consider how we can distinguish between two different types of atheism (in the philosophy of religion). I mean between the atheist we call the weak atheist who just does not believe in God, as contrasted with the atheist (called the strong atheist) who disbelieves in God (who believes that God does not exist). We can neatly make that distinction in terms of symbolic logic by characterizing the weak atheist as someone of whom it is true that he ~BG, whereas the strong atheist can be neatly described as someone of whom it is true that, B~G. (Note the different placing of the negation sign in each of the symbolizations). The two symbolizations show clearly not only the distinction between the two different kinds of atheism, but also show the logical relations between the two different kinds. They show how strong atheism implies weak atheism, but not conversely. And that is what is means in logic for one expression to be stronger than another. It means that the stronger expression implies the weaker, but the weaker does not imply the stronger.

The uses of symbolic logic have added a completely new dimension to old philosophical discussions, and have made them both, easier to understand, and also, easier to deak with. Trying to philosophize without logic is like trying to row a boat without oars.
Pepijn Sweep
 
  0  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 12:15 pm
We're all lost to logic
0 Replies
 
de Silentio
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 12:38 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:

Describing precisely the same thing is not describing differently. An illustration is Arabic numbers versus Roman numbers. Roman numbering is unwieldy, and trying to multiply using Roman numerals is a nightmare. It can be done, but multiplication with Arabic numbers which are much more precise is far easier...

It is like the difference between trying to do mathematics in plain English, and doing mathematics in the language of numbers...


It seems to me that the two exmples above are not examples of describing the same thing more precisely. More precise, with regard to logic, seems to me to mean that there are more facts that are incorporated into the logical reasoning. For exmaple, I have the proposition "If The dog with the red hair looks at you, then it will bite you". Propositional logic can deal with "dog" and "bite" while Predicate logic can deal with "dog with red hair" and "bite you". The fact that Predicate logic can handle more detailed propositions means that different conclusions can be drawn from it. (I think?) This would then seem to translate to different conclusions being drawn from classical logic to modern logic.

I know it is just an analogy, but in the example of doing math in English or in Mathematical Language, the syntax is different while the semantics and deductive theory stay the same. Whereas with the different forms of logic, the syntax as well as the semantics and deductive theory change. (I think this criticism holds for the Arabic numbers/Roman Numerals example, also).
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 12:45 pm
@de Silentio,
de Silentio wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

Describing precisely the same thing is not describing differently. An illustration is Arabic numbers versus Roman numbers. Roman numbering is unwieldy, and trying to multiply using Roman numerals is a nightmare. It can be done, but multiplication with Arabic numbers which are much more precise is far easier...

It is like the difference between trying to do mathematics in plain English, and doing mathematics in the language of numbers...


It seems to me that the two exmples above are not examples of describing the same thing more precisely. More precise, with regard to logic, seems to me to mean that there are more facts that are incorporated into the logical reasoning. For exmaple, I have the proposition "If The dog with the red hair looks at you, then it will bite you". Propositional logic can deal with "dog" and "bite" while Predicate logic can deal with "dog with red hair" and "bite you". The fact that Predicate logic can handle more detailed propositions means that different conclusions can be drawn from it. (I think?) This would then seem to translate to different conclusions being drawn from classical logic to modern logic.

I know it is just an analogy, but in the example of doing math in English or in Mathematical Language, the syntax is different while the semantics and deductive theory stay the same. Whereas with the different forms of logic, the syntax as well as the semantics and deductive theory change. (I think this criticism holds for the Arabic numbers/Roman Numerals example, also).


We can draw further conclusions from predicate logic because predicate logic goes further into detail. (But Aristotelian logic is just an elemantary version of predicate logic). But it is not that we can draw different conclusions from predicate logic, only further conclusions. There is a difference.
de Silentio
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 01:06 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:

We can draw further conclusions from predicate logic because predicate logic goes further into detail. (But Aristotelian logic is just an elemantary version of predicate logic). But it is not that we can draw different conclusions from predicate logic, only further conclusions. There is a difference.


What is the difference?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 01:53 pm
@de Silentio,
de Silentio wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

We can draw further conclusions from predicate logic because predicate logic goes further into detail. (But Aristotelian logic is just an elemantary version of predicate logic). But it is not that we can draw different conclusions from predicate logic, only further conclusions. There is a difference.


What is the difference?


We can draw the same conclusions from predicate logic as we can from classical logic. And, in addition, we can draw further conclusions.
de Silentio
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 06:02 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy wrote:

de Silentio wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

We can draw further conclusions from predicate logic because predicate logic goes further into detail. (But Aristotelian logic is just an elemantary version of predicate logic). But it is not that we can draw different conclusions from predicate logic, only further conclusions. There is a difference.


What is the difference?


We can draw the same conclusions from predicate logic as we can from classical logic. And, in addition, we can draw further conclusions.


I meant what is the difference between "further conclusions" and "different conclusions". It seems to me that when there is further information in the conclusion, the conclusion is different.

For example, the conclusions: (C1) "The dog is going to bite" and (C2) "The dog with red hair is going to bite" seem like different conclusions to me, even though (C2) merely has further information. ( (C1) would represent Propositional Logic while (C2) would represent Predicate Logic)
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Thu 1 Jul, 2010 07:06 pm
@de Silentio,
de Silentio wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

de Silentio wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

We can draw further conclusions from predicate logic because predicate logic goes further into detail. (But Aristotelian logic is just an elemantary version of predicate logic). But it is not that we can draw different conclusions from predicate logic, only further conclusions. There is a difference.


What is the difference?


We can draw the same conclusions from predicate logic as we can from classical logic. And, in addition, we can draw further conclusions.


I meant what is the difference between "further conclusions" and "different conclusions". It seems to me that when there is further information in the conclusion, the conclusion is different.

For example, the conclusions: (C1) "The dog is going to bite" and (C2) "The dog with red hair is going to bite" seem like different conclusions to me, even though (C2) merely has further information. ( (C1) would represent Propositional Logic while (C2) would represent Predicate Logic)


No, two people can draw the same conclusion, and then one of them can draw a further conclusion different from the conclusion they both drew before. But this is really trivial stuff, and has nothing whatever to do with the main topic. There are digressions, and then there are digression. This is the latter.
 

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