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Is "I Love you" a performative utterance?

 
 
Deckard
 
Reply Tue 22 Dec, 2009 08:51 pm
Is "I love you" a performative utterance? I mean "performative utterance" as defined by J. L. Austin and with reference to his book How to Do Things With Words.

Let's suppose that the phrase "I love you" is said by a man to a woman with whom he is romantically involved with. Also let us suppose this is the first time the phrase is said by him to her.
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Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 12:08 am
@Deckard,
Seems on the borderline. I think it functions that way. It's sort of a point of no return.
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jeeprs
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 12:13 am
@Deckard,
Can't you write it the way analytical philosphers do? You know, with symbols? So it says 'class of beings, myself, WITH REGARDS TO class of beings, yourself, FUNCTION, love'? One of the guys trained in symbolical logic could probably write it. I don't know the language. [Then, if you were a really romantic type you could hire a skywriter to write it for you, and if the target of your affection saw it, would probably know 'only HE would say that to me' (FUNCTION, sigh)].
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kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 12:19 am
@Deckard,
Deckard;113645 wrote:
Is "I love you" a performative utterance? I mean "performative utterance" as defined by J. L. Austin and with reference to his book How to Do Things With Words.

Let's suppose that the phrase "I love you" is said by a man to a woman with whom he is romantically involved with. Also let us suppose this is the first time the phrase is said by him to her.


No, because saying "I love you" is not loving "you", but saying, "I promise" is promising.
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Reconstructo
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 01:09 am
@Deckard,
Well, sometimes a promise is implicit. You no how ladies is.
Deckard
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 01:35 am
@Reconstructo,
kennethamy;113689 wrote:
No, because saying "I love you" is not loving "you", but saying, "I promise" is promising.


Reconstructo;113705 wrote:
Well, sometimes a promise is implicit. You no how ladies is.


Searle identified several types of performative utterances included one called declarations. For example a declaration of war. I think a declaration of love would be classified in much the same way.

It's a gray area (and that's why I found it interesting) but I really think it qualifies as performative.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 07:12 am
@Deckard,
Deckard;113714 wrote:
Searle identified several types of performative utterances included one called declarations. For example a declaration of war. I think a declaration of love would be classified in much the same way.

It's a gray area (and that's why I found it interesting) but I really think it qualifies as performative.

Correction: Searle's declaration is a type of (illocutionary) speech act. The performative utterance is uttered in the performance of the speech act. There is a subtle but important difference between the act and the utterance. So given the above described context (see first post), "I Love you" is a performative utterance uttered in the performance of a particular type of speech act, namely a declaration.


A formal declaration of war (when there were such things) meant that one nation declared war on other nation. But a declaration that I love someone does not mean that I love that person. To declare war is to be at war. But to declare love is not to be in love (nor to love someone). The Austin test is the use of "hereby". "I hereby declare war" is to declare war; but "I hereby love you" is not to love someone.
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 07:15 am
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;113736 wrote:
But to declare love is not to be in love (nor to love someone).


It's not? Well, I think, that's how it ought to be used. Why declare your love, if you aren't in love?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 07:29 am
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;113737 wrote:
It's not? Well, I think, that's how it ought to be used. Why declare your love, if you aren't in love?


I can think of at least one motive,
Deckard
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 05:29 pm
@kennethamy,
How about the original declaration of War on drugs.
I mean the first time it was said which was...July 14th 1969 Nixon
Was that a speech act?

How about the declaration of War on poverty?
declared January 8th 1964 by LBJ

Or the declaration of War on terrorism?
declared September 11th 2001 by Bush
maybe it was officially declared before but I'm not finding it.

These are metaphorical declarations of war not declarations of war against another nation. Do these declarations still qualify as speech acts?
Quinn phil
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 05:42 pm
@Deckard,
I think before we can define how the word is used, we should come to a clear understanding about what "love" really is. I think that love is affection without the usage of sexual hormones. I can be really attracted to, and really like someone, but I won't love them. If they die, I won't really care. With my parents though, it's different. With my best friend, it's different. In my mind, I really do, "love them".

So it definetely depends who you're saying it to. It can be simply be a responce to someone else saying, "I love you", or it can be something much deeper.
Deckard
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 07:26 pm
@Quinn phil,
Quinn;113926 wrote:
I think before we can define how the word is used, we should come to a clear understanding about what "love" really is. I think that love is affection without the usage of sexual hormones. I can be really attracted to, and really like someone, but I won't love them. If they die, I won't really care. With my parents though, it's different. With my best friend, it's different. In my mind, I really do, "love them".

So it definetely depends who you're saying it to. It can be simply be a responce to someone else saying, "I love you", or it can be something much deeper.


I agree that it the phrase is definitely not always a performative utterance but do you think the phrase 'I love you' ever qualifies as a performative utterance?
0 Replies
 
Quinn phil
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 07:52 pm
@Deckard,
Oh, yeah, all the time.

When a girl tells me, "I love you", i respond with, "I love you too." Without even really thinking about it.
0 Replies
 
Deckard
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 10:43 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;113736 wrote:
A formal declaration of war (when there were such things) meant that one nation declared war on other nation. But a declaration that I love someone does not mean that I love that person. To declare war is to be at war. But to declare love is not to be in love (nor to love someone). The Austin test is the use of "hereby". "I hereby declare war" is to declare war; but "I hereby love you" is not to love someone.


One may say "I hereby declare war" in jest or one may not be in a position of authority that would make such a declaration effective.

These are examples of what Austin called infelicities. The utterance is still performative but it is "unhappy".

To say "I hereby declare my love for you" can similarly be infelicitous. It could be in jest, or a lie, or spoken as a line in a play. But this does not disqualify the phrase itself from being called a performative.

But does the declaring of love start the love as a declaration of war starts the war? No, you have a point. However, on second thought, just as there is such a thing as a secret undeclared love there is also such a thing as a secret and undeclared war. For example: Does the fact that one nation has not declared war on another nation mean that there is no war even though said nation has invaded that other nation and occupied it slaughtering thousands of people in the process? There is undeclared war and there is undeclared love. Thus if declaring war is performative then declaring love is performative or at least it can not be disqualified from performative status for the reason mentioned.

The act of declaring war or declaring love still does something: it changes the quality of the war or the quality of the love.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Wed 23 Dec, 2009 10:54 pm
@Deckard,
Deckard;113922 wrote:
How about the original declaration of War on drugs.
I mean the first time it was said which was...July 14th 1969 Nixon
Was that a speech act?

How about the declaration of War on poverty?
declared January 8th 1964 by LBJ

Or the declaration of War on terrorism?
declared September 11th 2001 by Bush
maybe it was officially declared before but I'm not finding it.

These are metaphorical declarations of war not declarations of war against another nation. Do these declarations still qualify as speech acts?


I don't think that anyone actually said the words, "I (we) declare war on....". And Congress did not ratify it either.
0 Replies
 
 

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