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The logic of Kurt Godel

 
 
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 12:40 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;114904 wrote:
His point was that mathematics is not a logical tautology.

It was? How do you figure that?
Well, he fairly convincingly shows the logical unsustainability of mathematical axioms when examined only in mathematical terms.

The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy wrote:


Wikipedia wrote:
incompleteness theoremsPrincipia Mathematica und verwandter Systeme" (called in English "On formally undecidable propositions of Principia Mathematica and related systems"). In that article, he proved for any computable axiomatic system that is powerful enough to describe the arithmetic of the natural numbers (e.g. the Peano axioms or ZFC), that:
  1. If the system is consistent, it cannot be complete.
  2. The consistency of the axioms cannot be proven within the system.
These theorems ended a half-century of attempts, beginning with the work of Frege and culminating in Principia Mathematica and Hilbert's formalism, to find a set of axioms sufficient for all mathematics. The incompleteness theorems also imply that not all mathematical questions are computable.



Quote:
As I said, his point was that brains are useful.
Did he write that?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 12:53 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes;114913 wrote:
Well, he fairly convincingly shows the logical unsustainability of mathematical axioms when examined only in mathematical terms.

Did he write that?



No, I wrote that. (Although, I cannot swear I did not get it from some place). And I explained why.

To say that a formal system is incomplete is to say that the axioms are not sufficient to prove every wff (well-formed formula) within the system by a machine-like decision method. So that to prove some of the wffs, we have to do it by some kind of natural deduction that cannot be mechanized. In other words, we need a brain to do it.
Kielicious
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 01:19 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;114914 wrote:
In other words, we need a brain to do it.


Im not following you at all.

Godel just showed the basic foundational problem of epistemology. The mathematical axioms cannot be shown to be true by the very system itself --that would be circular. We need an outside reference point to do that, but obviously we dont have one. So instead we just accept them to be self-evidentially true.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 01:29 pm
@Kielicious,
Kielicious;114922 wrote:
Im not following you at all.

Godel just showed the basic foundational problem of epistemology. The mathematical axioms cannot be shown to be true by the very system itself --that would be circular. We need an outside reference point to do that, but obviously we dont have one. So instead we just accept them to be self-evidentially true.



As I wrote, G. showed that within certain higher order systems of mathematics it is impossible to have a mechanical decision method by which it can be decided for all wffs whether it is a theorem in the system. So, for those wffs, we can decide whether they are theorems only by proving them "by hand" (if we can). The stuff about epistemology is just wrong, or a speculation. Godel's proof is deep enough. We need not dig a hole for it. You can read a lot of sane and accurate books about it.

A classic is Godel's Proof by Nagel and Newman

A more recent one is, The Proof and Paradox of Kurt Godel, by Rebecca Goldstein.
0 Replies
 
Zetherin
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 01:39 pm
@Alan McDougall,
So, what does Godel's theorem rest on?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 01:41 pm
@Zetherin,
Zetherin;114927 wrote:
So, what does Godel's theorem rest on?


I don't understand that question.
0 Replies
 
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 02:03 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;114914 wrote:
In other words, we need a brain to do it.
We also need a brain in order to be irrationally paranoid or to create abstract art. So I don't see how this illuminates Godel's thoughts at all.

The best way to understand the importance of Godel is to read what Bertrand Russell wrote about him. Godel singlehandedly destroyed Russell's obsession with proving that all mathematics was reducible to logic. It rocked Russell's world, and he wrote about it in correspondance.

Why do you need to wax poetic about what Godel means to you when his work speaks for itself?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 02:17 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes;114937 wrote:
We also need a brain in order to be irrationally paranoid or to create abstract art. So I don't see how this illuminates Godel's thoughts at all.

The best way to understand the importance of Godel is to read what Bertrand Russell wrote about him. Godel singlehandedly destroyed Russell's obsession with proving that all mathematics was reducible to logic. It rocked Russell's world, and he wrote about it in correspondance.

Why do you need to wax poetic about what Godel means to you when his work speaks for itself?


Why if we need a brain for other things does not the fact that we need a brain to prove some theorems illuminate Godel's thought. (We know that gravity explains why apples fall to the ground. But does that mean that when we find out the gravity also explains the tides, that is not. illuminating?)

Mathematicians before Godel did not know that there were theorems that could not be proved. Godel proved there were undecidable theorems. All the rest is tinsel and flashing lights. This isn't literature. It is logic.
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 03:33 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;114944 wrote:
Why if we need a brain for other things does not the fact that we need a brain to prove some theorems illuminate Godel's thought.
Because it's so generic a statement that it lacks explanatory power.

kennethamy;114944 wrote:
Mathematicians before Godel did not know that there were theorems that could not be proved.
No, that's not correct. The implication of Godel was that NO theorem could be proved.

Here is what Bertrand Russell said regarding Godel:

Quote:
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 07:07 pm
@Aedes,
Can I add a definition of the word TAUTOLOGY for those not familiar with it,

Home > Tautology

First Prev [ 1 2 ] Next Last
In logic, a tautology is a statement which is true by its own definition, and is therefore fundamentally uninformative. Logical tautologies use circular reasoning within an argument or statement.
In linguistics, a tautology is a redundancy due to superfluous qualification.
1 Logical tautologies

A logical tautology is a statement that is true regardless of the truth values of its parts. For example, the statement "All crows are either black, or they are not black," is a tautology, because it is true no matter what color crows are. As a humorous example, the tautology is famously defined as "that which is tautological". (That definition is, of course, tautological.) In a more realistic example, if a biologist were to define "fit" in the phrase " survival of the fittest" as "more likely to survive", he would be forming a tautology.
The opposite of a tautology is a contradiction, which is a statement that is always false.
1.1 Example

Sometimes a logical tautology can be quite subtle. Suppose that a news analyst were to make the following statement:
All mainstream U.S. Senators agree that the House bill is unacceptable. This would seem to be a meaningful statement. But suppose further that he were also to reveal his opinion that "Senator K disagrees, and has therefore shown himself to be outside of the mainstream." In this case, the analyst's definition of "mainstream" requires opposition to the House bill. Therefore his original statement was a tautology.
2 Linguistic tautologies

A linguistic tautology is often a fault of style. It was defined by Fowler as "saying the same thing twice". For example, "three-part trilogy" is tautologous because a trilogy, by definition, has three parts. "Significant milestone" and "significant landmark" are also if less obviously tautologous, because milestones and landmarks are again significant by definition (could one imagine an "insignificant landmark"?).
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 07:15 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes;114969 wrote:
Because it's so generic a statement that it lacks explanatory power.

No, that's not correct. The implication of Godel was that NO theorem could be proved.

Here is what Bertrand Russell said regarding Godel:


The implication of Godel was that NO theorem could be proved.

Huh? That's simply false. Wherever did you get such an idea? You think that Godel showed that we cannot prove the Pythagorean theorem? We can prove any theorem in the propositional calculus simply with the truth table method. What you say is just nonsense.
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 07:26 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;115105 wrote:
NO theorem could be proved.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 07:48 pm
@Alan McDougall,
Alan McDougall;115109 wrote:


What makes you think that the unprovable theory will be "the final theory"?
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 09:15 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;115105 wrote:
The implication of Godel was that NO theorem could be proved.

Huh? That's simply false. Wherever did you get such an idea?
From Bertrand Russell, as I've quoted, who said that Godel threw all mathematical axioms into doubt, including 2+2=4. And Russell was not exactly a slouch -- he can be considered the most important mathematical logician in modern history, so I tend to respect his opinion.

kennethamy;115105 wrote:
What you say is just nonsense.
How about what Bertrand Russell says?

Bertrand Russell wrote:
If a given set of axioms leads to a contradiction, it is clear that at least one of the axioms must be false. Does this apply to school-boys' arithmetic, and, if so, can we believe anything that we were taught in youth? Are we to think that 2 + 2 is not 4, but 4.001?
Alan McDougall
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 09:17 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;115118 wrote:
What makes you think that the unprovable theory will be "the final theory"?


Because if we reach the final theory we must have also reached the understanding of the primordial sublime Uncaused Cause. Could that be theorized? I think not!
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 09:25 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes;115169 wrote:
From Bertrand Russell, as I've quoted, who said that Godel threw all mathematical axioms into doubt, including 2+2=4. And Russell was not exactly a slouch -- he can be considered the most important mathematical logician in modern history, so I tend to respect his opinion.

How about what Bertrand Russell says?


But Godel is not talking about axioms. He is talking about proving theorems. Axioms, of course, cannot be proven. That is why they are called axioms. The question is whether all theorems in, for instance, number theory, can be proven by a mechanical decision method. Godel proved they cannot. And, therefore, that we cannot prove number theory is consistent. That was an earthquake enough. As Russell said, "Mathematics is consistent because God exists. But the devil exists because we cannot prove it".

---------- Post added 12-28-2009 at 10:27 PM ----------

Alan McDougall;115171 wrote:
Because if we reach the final theory we must have also reached the understanding of the primordial sublime Uncaused Cause. Could that be theorized? I think not!


Maybe. I really wouldn't know. But that has nothing to do with Godel's theorem, which, if you will remember, is what we have been discussing, and what this thread is supposed to be all about.
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 09:38 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;115174 wrote:
But Godel is not talking about axioms.
Is Godel using the term "axiom" loosely or strictly here, then?

The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy wrote:
L by the Leibnizian[20] idea that, rather than the universe being "small," that is, one with the minimum number of sets, it is more natural to think of the set theoretic universe as being as large as possible.[21]This idea would be reflected in his interest in maximality principles, i.e., principles which are meant to capture the intuitive idea that the universe of set theory is maximal in the sense that nothing can be added; and in his conviction that maximality principles would eventually settle statements like the CHA (i.e., V = L


[/INDENT]And I suppose the intro in Wikipedia needs to be revised, then:
Wikipedia wrote:
incompleteness theorems, published in 1931 when he was 25 years of age, one year after finishing his doctorate at the University of Vienna. The more famous incompleteness theorem states that for any self-consistent recursive axiomatic system powerful enough to describe the arithmetic of the natural numbers (Peano arithmetic, which codes formal expressions as natural numbers.
He also showed that the continuum hypothesis cannot be disproved from the accepted axioms of set theory, if those axioms are consistent. He made important contributions to proof theory by clarifying the connections between classical logic, intuitionistic logic, and modal logic.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 09:47 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes;115180 wrote:
Is Godel using the term "axiom" loosely or strictly here, then?



[/INDENT]And I suppose the intro in Wikipedia needs to be revised, then:


Strictly.
About Wiki I have not read it, but I would not be surprised.
Aedes
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 10:00 pm
@kennethamy,
kennethamy;115185 wrote:
Strictly.
Ok. Well so much then for Godel "not talking about axioms", as you said.

kennethamy;115185 wrote:
About Wiki I have not read it, but I would not be surprised.
Ok. Prove it.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Mon 28 Dec, 2009 10:05 pm
@Aedes,
Aedes;115190 wrote:
Ok. Well so much then for Godel "not talking about axioms", as you said.

Ok. Prove it.



Not tonight, Josephine.
 

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