@infinidream,
Hi Infinidream, I would like to go intot this matter with you, but it is not going to be an easy discussion I think. Looking at this through my eyes you have not made certain connections and seperations. I am going to introduce some terms and definitions as well as explain some consequences of those terms and definitions and then use your post to show the relevance.
First of all I want to say that there is a difference between empiricism and rationalism. These are the definitions:
Rationalism - Empiricism
Empirism is the philosophy that thought begins with perception. From perceptions a certain frame of reference is formed from which future perceptions can be understood.
Rationalism is the philosophy which states that a frame of reference can only be formed by comparison; perceptions can only be understood by use of something which is already known. So, to form a frame of reference something must already be present
a priori. Because perceptions can only be understood by a certain comparisson a necessary condition for thought is the forming of a frame of reference which inturn can only happen by something which is a priori present in rational being. This a priori part of thought is also called
transcendental.
Through my eyes empiricism refutes itself because the theory is that thoughts are formed by usage of the senses (
thought objects are formed by the usage of senses and reason) and therefore it refines itself. Going backwards we reach deeper levels of 'unrifinedness'; arriving at a basic level where no thoughts had ever taken place. From that point no new thoughts can be explained because thoughts are derived by usage of thoughts, thereby refining itself (according to empiricism). Therefore we must conclude that there is a difference between thought and thinking. Which is what rationalism puts forward.
infinidream wrote:
Do our minds arise from our experiences, processed by our biology through sensory perception? Based on the following, I'd have to say no:
I think we agree.
Quote:
Given the '5 senses' catagorization of perception:
We can imagine a world in which there are only 4 senses. If we all lacked the ability to hear, for example, no one would have a concept of what its like to hear and the sense just wouldn't exist. Since we can also feel sound waves we would just think of them as tactile events. Just like we need telescopes to see things imperceptible to the eye, we would use instruments to sense sound that is imperceptible to the touch.
I think the general rule is that what our senses allow us to percieve necessarily exist, but that may very well be only a small portion of what exists, so it is not true that what we percieve is all that exists. By 'we' I mean humanity.
Quote:
So here's my question: Do you have a universal definition of what a mind is independent of the senses? Do you think some senses are required no matter which ones, and if so how many? Or do you think that we can only have 'mind' as we know it with the senses we currently understand?
I think in this case the seperation between thinking and the thinker must be made. The definition of 'mind' usually has both aspects inside itself. There are many thought-experiments by the name of 'brain in a vat'. We have a nice topic on that
right here. Perhaps you can blow some new life into it if you are willing to do so.