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Common Sensing The Nonsense

 
 
Reply Sat 14 Jun, 2008 10:31 pm
:eek::eek::eek::eek::eek::eek::eek::eek::eek:

Do our minds arise from our experiences, processed by our biology through sensory perception? Based on the following, I'd have to say no:

Given the '5 senses' catagorization of perception:

We can imagine a world in which there are only 4 senses. If we all lacked the ability to hear, for example, no one would have a concept of what its like to hear and the sense just wouldn't exist. Since we can also feel sound waves we would just think of them as tactile events. Just like we need telescopes to see things imperceptible to the eye, we would use instruments to sense sound that is imperceptible to the touch.

Clearly other organisms on this planet operate on far fewer of the common 5 senses than we do, but how do we know there aren't other senses we don't know about that they are using. Dolphins, for example, are assumed to communicate through complex squealing. But what if they are operating on a completely different sense spectrum and, just like we can feel sound, we hear their extrasensory communication as something far more limited than what it actually is?

Further, there may be organisms in existence that perceive with completely different senses than our own, living on worlds made of dark matter or some other object we can't even perceive with mathematics.

So here's my question: Do you have a universal definition of what a mind is independent of the senses? Do you think some senses are required no matter which ones, and if so how many? Or do you think that we can only have 'mind' as we know it with the senses we currently understand?
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urangutan
 
  1  
Reply Sat 14 Jun, 2008 10:48 pm
@infinidream,
Just to clarify, you do want to rule out the purpose that the brain has, in relation to the duties that the body performs like breathing digesting etc.., etc... or are you ruling out the correlation between mind and brain altogether.
Arjen
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Jun, 2008 03:32 am
@infinidream,
Hi Infinidream, I would like to go intot this matter with you, but it is not going to be an easy discussion I think. Looking at this through my eyes you have not made certain connections and seperations. I am going to introduce some terms and definitions as well as explain some consequences of those terms and definitions and then use your post to show the relevance.

First of all I want to say that there is a difference between empiricism and rationalism. These are the definitions:

Rationalism - Empiricism
Empirism is the philosophy that thought begins with perception. From perceptions a certain frame of reference is formed from which future perceptions can be understood.
Rationalism is the philosophy which states that a frame of reference can only be formed by comparison; perceptions can only be understood by use of something which is already known. So, to form a frame of reference something must already be present a priori. Because perceptions can only be understood by a certain comparisson a necessary condition for thought is the forming of a frame of reference which inturn can only happen by something which is a priori present in rational being. This a priori part of thought is also called transcendental.


Through my eyes empiricism refutes itself because the theory is that thoughts are formed by usage of the senses (thought objects are formed by the usage of senses and reason) and therefore it refines itself. Going backwards we reach deeper levels of 'unrifinedness'; arriving at a basic level where no thoughts had ever taken place. From that point no new thoughts can be explained because thoughts are derived by usage of thoughts, thereby refining itself (according to empiricism). Therefore we must conclude that there is a difference between thought and thinking. Which is what rationalism puts forward.

infinidream wrote:

Do our minds arise from our experiences, processed by our biology through sensory perception? Based on the following, I'd have to say no:

I think we agree. Smile

Quote:

Given the '5 senses' catagorization of perception:

We can imagine a world in which there are only 4 senses. If we all lacked the ability to hear, for example, no one would have a concept of what its like to hear and the sense just wouldn't exist. Since we can also feel sound waves we would just think of them as tactile events. Just like we need telescopes to see things imperceptible to the eye, we would use instruments to sense sound that is imperceptible to the touch.

I think the general rule is that what our senses allow us to percieve necessarily exist, but that may very well be only a small portion of what exists, so it is not true that what we percieve is all that exists. By 'we' I mean humanity.

Quote:

So here's my question: Do you have a universal definition of what a mind is independent of the senses? Do you think some senses are required no matter which ones, and if so how many? Or do you think that we can only have 'mind' as we know it with the senses we currently understand?

I think in this case the seperation between thinking and the thinker must be made. The definition of 'mind' usually has both aspects inside itself. There are many thought-experiments by the name of 'brain in a vat'. We have a nice topic on that right here. Perhaps you can blow some new life into it if you are willing to do so.
infinidream
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Jun, 2008 12:06 pm
@Arjen,
Hi Arjen,
Thank you for your thoughtful response,

Arjen wrote:

I think the general rule is that what our senses allow us to percieve necessarily exist


I don't agree with that statement. There is nothing in existence, as we know it, that would remain if our minds ceased to exist.

If human's didn't exist (you might have to go further to say if animals didn't exist), would there be such things as water, sound, air, anger, etc. Everything we can say about the world is a function of our ability to perceive it.

Without humans, you might be able to say that there is a universe with properties, but even that is debatable ('matrix' or 'brain in vat' theory). It could be that the 'universe' has infinite properties perceivable by infinite possible senses, and we are just seeing one representation of it based on the senses we have.

further, the universe as we see it isn't about the properties themselves. its about the meaning we give to them. Without a mind to assign meaning, the universe as we know it would not exist.
infinidream
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Jun, 2008 12:22 pm
@urangutan,
urangutan wrote:
Just to clarify, you do want to rule out the purpose that the brain has, in relation to the duties that the body performs like breathing digesting etc.., etc... or are you ruling out the correlation between mind and brain altogether.


not ruling out correlation, but I think the relationship isn't co-dependent. its more like a campfire. (wood being the brain and fire being the mind) fire couldn't exist without the wood, but it is something completey different.
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Arjen
 
  1  
Reply Sun 15 Jun, 2008 12:40 pm
@infinidream,
infinidream wrote:
Thank you for your thoughtful response,
Arjen wrote:

I think the general rule is that what our senses allow us to percieve necessarily exist


I don't agree with that statement. Setting aside the 'brain in vat' theory (whether or not we are dreaming seems irrelevant to my point, please let me know if I'm mistaken), There is nothing in existence, as we know it, that would remain if our minds ceased to exist.

Think about it. If human's didn't exist (you might have to go further to say if animals didn't exist), would there be such things as water, sound, air, anger, etc. Everything we can say about the world is a function of our ability to perceive it.

Without humans, you might be able to say that there is a universe with properties, but even that is debatable. It could be that the universe has infinite properties perceivable by infinite possible senses, and we are just seeing one representation of it based on the senses we have.

the universe as we see it isn't about the properties themselves. its about the meaning we give to them. Without anyone to assign meaning, the universe as we know it would not exist.

Exactly this is why I linked to the topic on Gottlob Frege in my previous post. My opinion in this matter is that there is a difference between what we percieve and what exists in reality. Indeed, it is even debatable what exists in reality. As Gottlob Frege points out, what we percieve are thoughtobjects made out of what we 'grasp' ('fassen') from what our senses tell us. I think that you are talking about something Immanuel Kant also tells us; that it is entirely possible that everything outside us is merely imagined by us. However, Kant is an idealist and he does think that there are things outside us (as do I). It is these things which form the basis of what our senses tell us. Because of our way of sensing we 'deform' what we observe though. I think that this philosophy is best represented by Frege's sense and reference
urangutan
 
  1  
Reply Mon 16 Jun, 2008 02:42 am
@Arjen,
Nice one Infinidream that would make information the oxygen for the fire to burn. Thank-you for that.
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