Re: Is there such a thing as "legal harrassment"?
Is there such a thing as "legal harrassment"?
What you describe could be called several things. If the ex-husband is asking the court to issue subpoenas or something similar, then it would be "abuse of process." It also seems to fit under the definition of "barratry"
as found in the Oklahoma statutes. There it is defined as "the practice of exciting groundless judicial proceedings" and it's a misdemeanor ("barratry" actually has a number of different meanings -- it's also when a lawyer instigates a suit for personal gain). Conceivably, your friend could file a complaint or ask the local prosecutor to bring charges against her ex-husband -- granted, it's only a misdemeanor, but that's the kind of thing that could land him in hot water with the state bar.
Doesn't Oklahoma follow the rule that the party in a divorce proceeding that is more capable of paying attorney's fees pays for both
parties? That's the case in Illinois, and it would certainly cut down on the amount of harrassment if the ex-husband had to pay the ex-wife's legal bills.