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Determinism and Will

 
 
Snoe
 
Reply Sat 4 Dec, 2004 09:25 pm
First, perhaps, I should introduce myself! My name is Theo, I am 16 years old and from the west coast of USA.

I know theres already a post about free will, but it's dragged on for a while, and the question of the post is not exactly the one I'd like to answer. Moreso, I'd appreciate critique of this point of view. Every once in a while I enjoy thinking, it's really only a part time hobby Razz. As of late, I've been thinking about free will. And well, I don't see how it's logically possible. However, thats what you bright minds are here for, to show me the holes in my thought process and perhaps show me some directions I am currently unaware of! And please, if you take the time to respond, I'd really appreciate if you took the time to read this entire post.


How can there be a logical theory that allows free will? Even if there are metaphysical forces at play, I can't imagine that they themselves are not determined by cause and effect. And, in the unlikely case that they are not controlled by cause and effect, then you have a massive series of causeless effects. I.E. Even if, for example, our consciousness and thought process somehow was not fully subject to cause and effect, then we're victims of absolutely random thoughts and events. Things that have no origin, and thus we have no control over them.

I challenge you this: Think of something totally irrelevant. Right now. If you have free will, do this.

Now, some of you may have ended up in a very bizarre place, perhaps your Aunt, or a certain bicycle shade. Although it is irrelevant to the situation, it is not irrelevant to you, or the experience. Perhaps when I said that question, the word irrelevant reminded you of the first time you heard it said, and then the person who said that, then your memories of that person, then memories tied to that person, and so on. Or, perhaps you subconsciously picked up in a change of light, and your consciousness reminded you of another time that happened, then so on. The point is, that thoughts are *given* to you. You are not a "thing" that retrieves them. In fact, in many ways, you are an illusion of yourself.

Now, perhaps you were a little bit trickier. Lets say, you, being the zen master that you are, sat on your meditation cushion and completely cleared your head of thoughts. Then, out of nowhere, with absolutely no apparent cause, you think of a teapot (or whatever you did think of).

First off, the decision to meditate and clear your mind had to be absolutely relevant, and thus anything that is a product of it is relevant. Second off, there are two possible reasons, that I can personally conceive of, that would make you think of the teapot.

A. For some reason it was relevant. Perhaps you unknowingly had a physical twitch that brought up the thought of teapots. Or, perhaps your brain just decided to think, and your teapot thought synapse was the most immediate one.

B. It had no cause. As you might imagine, it was completely causeless. In such a situation, you did not will it, so even so, you did not have "free will" in the situation. It was random, ridiculous, and still negates the concept of free will.

People seem to have this idea that the existence of the metaphysical somehow negates our knowledge of the physical, and automatically allows for things such as free will, and more. Yet, I find any metaphysical object that is neither controlled by cause and effect, or completely random, to be implausible. Futhermore, just because there is something metaphysical, doesn't necessarily mean it's affiliated with our minds or will.

To recap, it seems to me that there is what we are given, and what we experience (which knowledge is derived from.) Since, I was granted my mind (or brain, or both), and I know that my mind processes information that is given to it. I get my information from some source. The mind must already know how to compute, or have a method of computing. Because, if it learns to compute through some way, then it must have the ability to compute how to compute, ad infinitum.

So if there is the information that is granted to me (controlled by my environment and circumstance) and my mind/whatever else is involved (already set up, without my control), then there is nothing there that is "free will." Furthermore, we have to base decision off of SOMETHING. To base it off something, we must be bias in someway- I.E. if we had no bias then we could never choose, out of having no priority. The only way to obtain bias is for it to be granted or learned. For it to be learned and applied, there must be a bias that allowed that, ad infinitum. Making a decision is an example of cause and effect.

The bias of consciousness is also and argument I've used against the existence of a non-bias, judgemental God. The point being that unless we know *everything* we are bias, since we know only that which we do. For God to not be bias (a sword through the idea of his fair judgement) he must know everything. Since there is a never ending amount of knowledge, such as the infinite past and continuing future (and supposedly we have free will so he cannot know the future) then he must in fact be bias. However, that is irrelevant to the topic at hand so I'll disregard it.

I would go on to speak about probability, but then I would only be further digging in on determinism. I know it seems like all I've done is explained determinism in my own terms, but I believe my most important point is that the unlikelihood of free will is not changed by the existence of the metaphysical.

Thanks,
Theo
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timberlandko
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Dec, 2004 09:38 pm
Here's a poser for you, Snoe/Theo ...

By what empirical, independently verifiable, multiply referenced and acknowledged evidentiary data do you conclude there is a metaphysical? Perhaps it is something in which, being free to do so, you choose to believe - or disbelieve, as the case may be. There are some who believe neither one way nor the other, seeing the matter unresolvable with currently available resources. In your estimation which, if any, of those three positions is correct, and why? Or does it come down to probability, in which case again in your estimation which would be the most probable condition, and why?


Oh, and welcome to A2K
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Snoe
 
  1  
Reply Sat 4 Dec, 2004 10:01 pm
Woah that was weird, I was trying to visit another website and I got this message that my message had been recieved successfully or something and it took me here.

Anyway, timber:

Quote:
By what empirical, independently verifiable, multiply referenced and acknowledged evidentiary data do you conclude there is a metaphysical?


I don't remember concluding that there was. Perhaps I said something incorrectly? I'll proofread it again later. My point on the metaphysical was that even if there was a metaphysical it didn't, in my understanding, change the problem of free will.

As far as the empirical data that supports my argument, if that's what you're asking. Is one, the test I give to think of something irrelevant. Two, nature and the world that I percieve around me. You can test this yourself. Perhaps, tell a joke to someone. If they laugh from your joke, then you can assume that the cause of their laughter is your joke. Or, for something perhaps a little more empirical, hold an object in the air then release. Ask yourself, now, why did the object drop (imagining it does, if it doesnt, contact the media immediately) was it causeless, or did it have a cause?

Quote:
Perhaps it is something in which, being free to do so, you choose to believe - or disbelieve, as the case may be. There are some who believe neither one way nor the other, seeing the matter unresolvable with currently available resources. In your estimation which, if any, of those three positions is correct, and why?


I'm not necessarily sure what I do or do not know. Am I absolutely positive that I exist? No, I am not. But, without assuming that I exist, I could not go anywhere. As far as choosing one thing or another, thats what I'm trying to deal with. Why would I choose one or the other? Furthermore, who is this "I" that is choosing, and what is it's function. Why, I is the chooser, correct? And he bases his choosings off what? His experience, and his ability to choose (or compute). If he did not learn to compute (if he did, he must have had to ability to learn how to learn how to computer, ad infinitum, see above.) Then all he is is a biological computer, with the experiences he's had and what his computation has made of them.

So I guess what you're really asking, is what were my experiences, and what did my biological computer make of it? At least, so my argument says. Personally, as I said, I try to never go as far to assume that I am correct on anything. Theres a good chance I will never know if there is free will. However, whenever I come up with thoughts or evidence towards either position, I like to open them up to others, hoping for criticism and further understanding. That way, I can expand my own thought process.

Quote:
Or does it come down to probability, in which case again in your estimation which would be the most probable condition, and why?


What is probability? Does it exist? If I flip a coin, and it lands on tails. Did probability act upon it? Was it random? Or was it caused by forces. I.E. did it land on tails because of how hard I flipped it, it's weight, wind resistance, the gravity, the weather conditions, friction, and more.

Now lets imagine that I knew everything, how hard I hit the coin, it's momentum, the gravity, wind resistance, etc. etc. Would I be able to predict which side the coin lands on? I think so. For example, if I roll a marble, and it stops in one spot- I can see why. The places it hit off, how hard I rolled it, where I rolled it towards, the gradual loss of momentum. Etc.

Quote:
Oh, and welcome to A2K


Thanks Very Happy and thanks for responding <3.

Theo
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binnyboy
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Dec, 2004 04:14 am
I tend to agree on all points.

But people are going to throw quantum mechanics at you like they did at me. Here is an essay describing the basics of it, if you haven't read anything on it before. I found it very useful, but I will be skeptical until I see some of the writeups for some of the tests that were only mentioned and not described.

One of my uneducated interpretations of quantum mechanics: not all effects have causes.
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timberlandko
 
  1  
Reply Sun 5 Dec, 2004 09:26 am
To relate the logic of quantum mechanics and the philosophies of free will and determinism, you might find the following illuminating;

Neils Bohr's Copenhagen Interpretation, which essentially holds that the process of proving an existing thing or condition becomes an integral and operative function of that thing or condition, thus altering that thing or condition ad infinitum,

Werner Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle, which essentially holds that it is not possible to determine simultaneously the position and momentum of a particle and that as the degree of precision of one determinate increases, the degree of precision applying to the alternate determinate decreases,

and

Kurt Gödel's Theorem: ON FORMALLY UNDECIDABLE PROPOSITIONS OF PRINCIPIA MATHEMATICA AND RELATED SYSTEMS , which esentially holds that for every system of proofs, there will exist propositions which though valid cannot be proven within the system of proof at question and conversely that there will exist invalid propositions which cannot be disproven within that system,

and finally, tying those together to round out the perplexity of knowing that everything we know to any precision has a counter-correlary of inversely proportional certainty, there is Ben Best's paper A Case for Free Will AND Determinism <--- Note: Its prolly best to read this first if you're not already eybrow-deep in physics and logic - matter of fact, this prolly is all ya gotta read to get the idea :wink: Laughing
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