kwama wrote
Quote:The second point is the verb "to appear" which "in the Bible comes from the Greek: Phaino. It means: to make manifest or visible or known what has been hidden or unknown; to become manifest, be made known; expose to view; make manifest, to show one's self, appear". From Genesis to Revelation, when applied to a raised person this verb alludes to supernatural beings.
ok if your gonna use the greek tense please post all that it says and where it is used in the bible...Yes the greek used phaino is correct and it means to appear...but this verb tense isnt just used and applied for supernatural beings...here are a few verses that use the same greek word to show physical humans being seen by others.....
Mt 6:5 And when thou prayest, thou shalt not be as the hypocrites are: for they love to pray standing in the synagogues and in the corners of the streets, that they may
be seen of men. Verily I say unto you, They have their reward. phaino is the greek word used there...
Mt 6:15 Moreover when ye fast, be not, as the hypocrites, of a sad countenance: for they disfigure their faces, that they may
appear unto men to fast. Verily I say unto you, They have their reward.
the greek Phaino doesnt mean in any way an appearance of the supernatural it just simply means to be evident or appear....
Phaino is used 31 times in the new testament and most of those times its not linked to a supernatural experience at all...so your point of linking a verb with a few supernatural experiences to prove that when Christ "appeared" it must have been supernatural isn't logical