Do the Latin words rēs/rēx have the “speech” meaning?

In the Old Slavonic there is only one meaning of the word рѣчь (rech') "speech" but in the Polish there are two meanings "speech" and "thing".

In my opinion, the second meaning of the Polish word inherired since the beginning of the 1569 year, when the Rzeczpospolita was established, and only by analogy with latin rēs "thing" + pūblica.

Is it acceptable to argue, that the latin word "rēs" also has the "speech" meaning and that the latin word "rēx" also means the man, who has a right "to speak" (has a voice in) or that man to whose speak all other people are to obey.

In accordance to bible, the God is a Word (speech) and there is none good (well) but one, that is, God.

Jn 1:1:

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God"

Mt 19:17:

"there is none good but one, that is, God"