5
   

why does straight A's have an apostrophe?

 
 
perennialloner
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 12:18 pm
@PUNKEY,
Isnt that just possessive though? The eve of the new year.
0 Replies
 
dalehileman
 
  0  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 12:49 pm
@perennialloner,
Peren that's an excellent q which in spite of my lifetime in Journ I have long, long wondered !!

...tho like Rog's...
...even better Lay's resp...

Says Rog:
Quote:
I think the OP was hoping for a little more.

Rog, agn m my d
0 Replies
 
dalehileman
 
  0  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 12:54 pm
@perennialloner,
Quote:
just uninformed
Goo'd'n'fer'yu' Renni


Love all you guys
Really, Renni, Reliably
0 Replies
 
InfraBlue
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 01:57 pm
@perennialloner,
perennialloner wrote:

I don't understand why.

Thanks!

It's all about style and readability.
0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 04:48 pm
@Lash,
Lash wrote:

In one of my English classes at UGA, my professor followed my example using As and 1980s, and asked the class to lose those apostrophes.

πŸ’•It was love.


It had to be love, eh, Darlin, because it's a bad practice--not something to advocate unless it might help you get into someone's pants, or sumthin.
Lash
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 06:34 pm
@layman,
Are you going to try it? Keep me posted.
perennialloner
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 07:33 pm
Thanks to all for their input.

Another question: is it also a stylistic choice to add an extra "s" after possessive plural nouns.

for example, the surname Jones.

are both "Jones'" and "Jones's" acceptable options?

and if they are, would they be said the same or would the writer who wrote Jones' have intended it to be pronounced Jones as opposed to Joneses.

If it were pronounced Joneses, would it be wrong to write it like "Joneses'" to indicate the possessive as an alternative to "Jones's."

which do native speakers find more natural to say.

I'm going to the Jones' OR I'm going to the Jones's.
layman
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 07:55 pm
@perennialloner,
That a long question, and I aint gunna try to answer it all. But you can be talking about different things. A single Jones family, and the apostrophe would just indicate possession (by them or "it").

"All the Jones's in the country" would be a different context.
0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Reply Thu 6 Apr, 2017 07:58 pm
@perennialloner,
perennialloner wrote:

which do native speakers find more natural to say.

I'm going to the Jones' OR I'm going to the Jones's.


You would "say" them the same (the second way). But that's different than how you might write it.

There is an implied noun here, e.g. The Jones' house. (jonsus)
0 Replies
 
hightor
 
  3  
Reply Sat 8 Apr, 2017 05:54 am
You often see decades abbreviated this way β€” the 20's, the 50's, the 80's. But I believe that the proper use of the apostrophe in these cases is like this β€” the '20s, the '50s, the '80s. Because the apostrophe replaces the '19'. I'll bet it was the "straight A's" convention that led people to accept the abbreviation with the apostrophe between the 'zero' and the 's'.
layman
 
  1  
Reply Sat 8 Apr, 2017 08:32 am
@Lash,
Hell, yeah! I'm ALWAYS tryin, ya know?
0 Replies
 
camlok
 
  0  
Reply Sun 9 Apr, 2017 09:21 pm
@maxdancona,
Quote:
English has not been spoken with the correct "grammar" in the past 500 years. People keep speaking English in the way that makes sense to them, and eventually the "grammarians" catch up.


The quotes tell it all, mostly. Those quotes mean "not real ... ", as in "not real grammarians".

But to make it perfectly clear - English has always been spoken with the correct grammar since its origins.
0 Replies
 
camlok
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 May, 2017 09:07 pm
@hightor,
Quote:
You often see decades abbreviated this way β€” the 20's, the 50's, the 80's. But I believe that the proper use of the apostrophe in these cases is like this β€” the '20s, the '50s, the '80s. Because the apostrophe replaces the '19'. I'll bet it was the "straight A's" convention that led people to accept the abbreviation with the apostrophe between the 'zero' and the 's'.


That's a theory and it may well be a good one, hightor. Let's assume it is accurate. To suggest then that because language once did something one way and that is the proper way is [don't be hurt, for that isn't my intention] silly, fatuous, illogical.

There are thousands of changes that have occurred in language, all languages, and the only thing that is proper is what it is at the present time.

People have been raised by unthinking teachers/parents/... that there are certain correct ways to speak and write. Almost everyone could come up with a number of these bits of nonsense because everyone has been subjected to them.
0 Replies
 
ekename
 
  1  
Reply Tue 30 May, 2017 11:42 pm
0 Replies
 
 

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