http://www.whitehouse.gov/omb/budget/Historicals
Below is American taxation revenue, in Millions of dollars, in the following order across : Year : Income Tax Revenue : Company Tax Revenue
It's an Excel doc, so it doesn't paste in properly. I've removed years so only every 5 years shows for earlier years.
Quote:1934 420 364
1940 892 1,197
1945 18,372 15,988
1950 15,755 10,449
1955 28,747 17,861
1960 40,715 21,494
1965 48,792 25,461
1970 90,412 32,829
1975 122,386 40,621
1980 244,069 64,600
1985 334,531 61,331
1990 466,884 93,507
1995 590,244 157,004
2000 1,004,462 207,289
2001 994,339 151,075
2002 858,345 148,044
2003 793,699 131,778
2004 808,959 189,371
2005 927,222 278,282
2006 1,043,908 353,915
2007 1,163,472 370,243
2008 1,145,747 304,346
2009 915,308 138,229
2010 898,549 191,437
2011 1,091,473 181,085
In 1934 the Income Tax to Company Tax ratio was 420 : 364 = 1.15 : 1
In 2011 the Income Tax to Company Tax ratio was 1091473 : 181085 = 6.03 : 1
The growing divide in tax revenue between 1934 & 2011 is 6.03 : 1.15 = 5.24
In other words (and in the simplest terms), Income Tax revenue has increased at 5.24 times the amount of Company tax.
And effectively - where companies used to contribute almost 50% of tax revenue, they now only contribute 100 / 7.03 = 14.22% of tax revenue (you use 7.03 because the total tax revenue of of the ratio of 1:6.03=7.03, and you divide that into 1oo because that gives you the percentage value of 1, which is the company tax component) .
Income tax payers are making up (ie paying % more for) for the historical difference (ie % loss) in revenue that companies used to pay .
Why is it occurring?
What forces are at work to move it in this direction?
What outcome is this tax pattern going to result in?
As a footnote : It could easily be argued that between 1934 and 2011 income income tax payers have effectively subsidised companies tax contribution to federal tax revenue.