Quote:@Frank Apisa,
Quote:Quote:
Aidan: And then there'd even be more nuance and differentiation depending upon if your speaker was white, black, hispanic, a debutante, etc., etc.
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I would like, however, to ask the "experts" here about your use of "was" in that sentence.
EXPERTS: Is "was" correct...is "were" the proper verb...or are both correct?
There is no subjunctive mood in Aidan's sentence, Frank.
The subjunctive mood is the 'if' of irrealis/the impossible/the highly unlikely/... .
If I were/was you
If she were/was to come
Note that all 'ifs' do not signal that end of the conditional scale where irrealis if/unlikely 'if' lies.
Lot's of 'ifs' are used to describe the reality end of the conditional scale;
I'll pay for your plane fare if you come to my party.
If Frank replies to this post, we shall have a fine discussion on conditionals.
Those reality 'ifs' can even morph into 'whens', if the situation slides further toward the reality end of the scale.
I'll pay you for your plane fare when you arrive at my party.
When Frank replies to this post, we will have a fine discussion on conditionals.
Aidan's 'if' is so distant from the irrealis/subjunctive end of the conditional scale that it is actually a 'whether/if'.
And then there'd even be more nuance and differentiation depending upon if/whether your speaker was white, black, hispanic, a debutante, etc., etc.
We can see just how far to the reality side of the conditional scale this is, not just because it can be changed to a 'whether' but also by adding, for example,
And then there'd even be more nuance and differentiation depending upon the times when/those situations where your speaker was white, black, hispanic, a debutante, etc., etc.
Perhaps, Frank, you thought that the 'would', in there'd was denoting a condition/conditional that was getting close to the irrealis end of the conditional scale.
But it is interesting that you have brought this up, Frank. The subjunctive/conditionals have been so poorly described to American students [yes, others too] that they immediately [when they are in a fevered pedantic mode] see a subjunctive/irrealis where none exists.
This leads them to hypercorrect. Had you advised Aidan, in the same manner that you advised H20man, you would have been hypercorrecting in addition to being prescriptive. But in this case you would have been incorrect even by prescriptive standards, which, I guess one could say, describes an out to lunch analysis that is out of this universe.