I believe he refers to King James English.
This is false. The current expression should properly be the Queen's English, because the monarch is currently a woman, Queen Elizabeth II. There is precedent for this, as well. Writing in 1600, Shakespeare refers to "the Queen's English." The monarch in 1600 was a woman, Queen Elizabeth. The language is, in this phrase, spoken of as the possession of the monarch, in the sense of guardianship, or trusteeship. Therefore, it is only the King's English when the monarch is a man. It is generally taken to be English as it is spoken by an educated person in the south of England, and in particular, in the home counties, outside metropolitan London (where no one can be sure whose English is being spoken).