Steve (as 41oo) wrote:Slavery did not exist in Jesus's era.
What?
This is sarcasm, right? Slavery was a common feature in antiquity. It existed in several forms, including debt slavery, sexual slavery, as well as the form better known to us in the 21st century of plantation slavery (acquired from the Carthaginians, if I recall correctly).
Slaves are mentioned in both Torah and the new testament. The "Church Fathers" wrote on it, and often were slave owners themselves. A subject of heated debate in the early church was whether or not slave could become Christians, since they did not have freedom over their bodies. In the literature of the period, slaves are described as appendages to the bodies of their owners, and therefore had little intrinsic value on their own. Could an entity that lacked free will actually convert, against the wishes of its owner? In addition, the inability of a slave to avoid "sin (
peccatum) due to his lack of control over his person made the likelihood of salves becoming Christian unlikely.
Consider the admonitions toward continence promulgated in the early church. One accepted outlet for male sexual gratification that was not condemned was the use of slaves. If emphasis is placed on sexual sin, as it was among the Christians, how can a body that is incapable of refusing its use ever hope to achieve "salvation?" Especially when that body is explicitly approved for sexual use? The only way a slave could become truly "Christian" would be when its owner converted, and emphasized the same rituals and prohibitions on their household. This "christianity" would likely end if the slave was sold to a non-Christian.
Sorry for the long winded response.