1
   

When Jesus was in Mary, what happened to the trinity?

 
 
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 12:42 pm
@Greatest I am cv,
Greatest I am;52360 wrote:
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 02:07 pm
@Greatest I am cv,
Greatest I am;52360 wrote:


Concerning your IDEA that angels impregnated earthly females and produced giants.

Genesis 6:4, "There were giants in those days; and also AFTER THAT, the sons of God came in unto daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same BECAME MIGHTY MEN which were of old, men of renown."

RIGHTEOUS PEOPLE (the sons of God) intermarried with the wicked (the reason that God destroyed the world by the flood and started all over, the wicked far outnumbered the righteous....their wickedness was made by their own life decisions of free will, not Gods will). The "wicked" were the DAUGHTERS OF MEN.

Every once and a while you will find someone that "claims" that the angels came down from heaven and mated with earthly women...apparently you found one of these people and parroted their idea. But, the scriptures make it clear that ANGELS do not marry -- Matthew 22:30. Presenting the conclusion that they have no sex, either male nor female, as marriage is defined by God as between a male and a female -- Genesis 2:24, Matthew 19:4-7. And God makes it just as clear that sex outside marriage is considered wrong and a sin -- l Cor. 7:1-9. And you are now suggesting that God would allow those that live in heaven to sin?

It is true that angles are called the sons of God in the scriptures (Job 1:6), but it is also just as true that RIGHTEOUS MEN are also called the sons of God -- Hosea 1:10, Gal. 3:26. Thus considering the fact that angels dwell in heaven and God also dwells in heaven and would cast out any angel that sinned and the fact that angels DO NOT MARRY, we must logically conclude that the sons of God being referred to was MEN that still worshiped and served God....like Noah. But with more and more men becoming wicked by the action of their free will in being able to choose good from evil and deciding to become evil (Genesis 3:22), BY CHOICE, the unrighteous out numbered the righteous and many Righteous Men decided to take a wife from among those that did not worship God any longer or the DAUGHTERS OF MEN, in the hope of converting them, but more often than not the righteous became corrupt, thus "God was repentant" and it grieved Him that He had made man in the first place as they had used their God granted gift of free will to choose evil over good. -- Genesis 6:6.

But also notice that the same verse self describes these imagined Giants not as large men but men that were, "mighty men of renown" or simply great among men. And the fact that these MIGHTY MEN/GIANTS existed even before the sons of God married the daughters of Men, "....and also after that, WHEN THE SONS OF GOD CAME UNTO THE DAUGHTERS OF MEN...". Whether they were physically large or not, they existed BEFORE the fact of this intermarriage. And does not logic dictate that they could not have been THAT MUCH BIGGER THAN men.....or MATING would have been a physical IMPOSSIBILITY...no? (RD)
Greatest I am cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 08:14 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;58976 wrote:
Greatest I am;52360 wrote:


Why do I think this way. Just common sense of what a God would not do.

Some say that God is never changing. Incest is incest. He is for or against forever. He does not change His mind.

We are also told that there is but one God. Not three.
If we have three personalities then there are three Gods.

How could Jesus be before comming out of Marie. Miracles miracles everywhere and God unable to start us right. Strange.

I think that If God wanted to be on earth, He would find a way that does not include bestiality.

The God of ants is an ant.
The God of dogs is a dog.
The God of men must be a man.

Regards
DL
Greatest I am cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 08:23 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;58979 wrote:
Concerning your IDEA that angels impregnated earthly females and produced giants.

Genesis 6:4, "There were giants in those days; and also AFTER THAT, the sons of God came in unto daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same BECAME MIGHTY MEN which were of old, men of renown."

RIGHTEOUS PEOPLE (the sons of God) intermarried with the wicked (the reason that God destroyed the world by the flood and started all over, the wicked far outnumbered the righteous....their wickedness was made by their own life decisions of free will, not Gods will). The "wicked" were the DAUGHTERS OF MEN.

Every once and a while you will find someone that "claims" that the angels came down from heaven and mated with earthly women...apparently you found one of these people and parroted their idea. But, the scriptures make it clear that ANGELS do not marry -- Matthew 22:30. Presenting the conclusion that they have no sex, either male nor female, as marriage is defined by God as between a male and a female -- Genesis 2:24, Matthew 19:4-7. And God makes it just as clear that sex outside marriage is considered wrong and a sin -- l Cor. 7:1-9. And you are now suggesting that God would allow those that live in heaven to sin?

It is true that angles are called the sons of God in the scriptures (Job 1:6), but it is also just as true that RIGHTEOUS MEN are also called the sons of God -- Hosea 1:10, Gal. 3:26. Thus considering the fact that angels dwell in heaven and God also dwells in heaven and would cast out any angel that sinned and the fact that angels DO NOT MARRY, we must logically conclude that the sons of God being referred to was MEN that still worshiped and served God....like Noah. But with more and more men becoming wicked by the action of their free will in being able to choose good from evil and deciding to become evil (Genesis 3:22), BY CHOICE, the unrighteous out numbered the righteous and many Righteous Men decided to take a wife from among those that did not worship God any longer or the DAUGHTERS OF MEN, in the hope of converting them, but more often than not the righteous became corrupt, thus "God was repentant" and it grieved Him that He had made man in the first place as they had used their God granted gift of free will to choose evil over good. -- Genesis 6:6.

But also notice that the same verse self describes these imagined Giants not as large men but men that were, "mighty men of renown" or simply great among men. And the fact that these MIGHTY MEN/GIANTS existed even before the sons of God married the daughters of Men, "....and also after that, WHEN THE SONS OF GOD CAME UNTO THE DAUGHTERS OF MEN...". Whether they were physically large or not, they existed BEFORE the fact of this intermarriage. And does not logic dictate that they could not have been THAT MUCH BIGGER THAN men.....or MATING would have been a physical IMPOSSIBILITY...no? (RD)


I guess that God must have set the bodies to the right size for Him and His angels to use woman for sex. He first sent the angels to **** our women and later does the same Himself. Acording to scripture that is.

Are we just a pleasure planet for heavenly hosts?

God breaking His own laws of fornication and killing seems strange to me.

Then again, Im not a fundamental. They can accept any strange behavior from their loving God. Even the drowning of innocent babis and children.

Many do not realize that a confrontation between God and any one is just too unfair to be real. God does not squash ants.

Regards
DL
0 Replies
 
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 10:02 pm
@Greatest I am cv,
Greatest I am;58983 wrote:
RED DEVIL;58976 wrote:


Why do I think this way. Just common sense of what a God would not do.

Some say that God is never changing. Incest is incest. He is for or against forever. He does not change His mind.

We are also told that there is but one God. Not three.
If we have three personalities then there are three Gods.

How could Jesus be before comming out of Marie. Miracles miracles everywhere and God unable to start us right. Strange.

I think that If God wanted to be on earth, He would find a way that does not include bestiality.

The God of ants is an ant.
The God of dogs is a dog.
The God of men must be a man.

Regards
DL


God never changes his mind? If this is true then how do you explain the difference in covenants? Like between the covenant God had with father Abraham (The Patriarchal) and the supposed NEW COVENANT that many Islamic people think God had with the imagined visit of an angel with Muhammad? Are you saying that things are exactly the same? If so why are sacrifices no longer burned at the alter and offered to God?

Its very clear that God changes his mind...this does not constitute a change in the righteousness of God or the way that God never lies and is always faithful to keep his promises. You would not consider having a spouse taken from your own rib and then bearing Children with her INCEST? -- Genesis 2:21-24. Or the fact of ABRAHAM marrying his own sister INCEST? -- Genesis 20:1-12. And if God does not change his mind to adjust for the free will choices of man, how could God have been REPENTANT? "And it repented the Lord...." -- Genesis 6:6. Repented literally means A CHANGE IN DIRECTION. And He made it vividly clear that He changed His mind....ever hear of a little thing called the GREAT FLOOD, as God erased all that came before and allowed mankind to start anew.

As He corrected the mistakes made....not by Him, but, those made by mankind in the exercise of their free will in choosing evil over good, which is EXACTLY how man is made in the image of God having the right to choose their own fate (Genesis 3:22), and the only reason that man is no longer immortal like God is the fact that he (man) can no longer eat of the tree of life (which was not forbidden to eat while man was in the garden, until after the fact of his sinning), as the only tree that man was forbidden to partake was that of the TREE OF KNOWLEDGE OF RIGHT AND WRONG, which would make man realize when they had sinned, "And the Lord God commanded the man, saying, Of EVERY TREE OF THE GARDEN THOU MAYEST FREELY EAT: BUT FOR THE TREE OF THE KNOWLEDGE OF GOOD AND EVIL, THOU SHALT NOT EAT OF IT...." -- Genesis 2:16-17. These two trees were distinctly different, one was allowed the other was not. And its clear that after man disobeyed God and ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, God could no longer allow mankind to live in the Garden where the tree of LIFE was located, "And the Lord God said, Behold, the man is become as one of us, to know good and evil: and now, lest he put forth his hand, and TAKE ALSO of the TREE OF LIFE, and eat, and live forever...." -- Genesis 3:22

It is hard to demonstrate something that is actually written to someone when they IGNORE it as if it does not exist. By your reasoning are we to simply ignore what is written and choose to believe how we will? Why then have any Holy Books of guidance in the first place? Are you simply to make the "BREATH OF GOD" non effect by your will (to include the supposed visit of an angel to MUHAMMAD)? Are you saying that MUHAMMAD was not inspired either? If you want your cake and then claim the right to eat it as well that is indeed YOUR FREE WILL, but your free will does not constitute what is inspired from God or God breathed. Which is what INSPIRED literally means (God breathed) as the Old Testament indeed is professed to be inspired by God as well as the NEW. Your reasoning makes all Holy Books useless....no? Especially since some make claims to be only a continuation of the same truth? You would be quite correct..... You and I can never come to any understanding or agreement, for indeed its clear that you take the words delivered by God to man (Inspired Scriptures) with no more value that any other writing of man, while I on the other hand take them for they are self professed to be, A DIRECT REVELATION form God to man in a demonstration of his will, "But I make known to you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached by me IS NOT ACCORDING TO MAN. For I neither received it from man, NOR WAS I TAUGHT IT, but it came THROUGH THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST." -- Gal 1:11-12. (RD)
Greatest I am cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 10:11 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
Red devil

There is nothing that is Holy on this earth.

If one must believe in talking snakes to understand your view, I am glad I do not.

Wow an inspired talking snake.

Regards
DL
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 10:29 pm
@Greatest I am cv,
Greatest I am;58987 wrote:
Red devil

There is nothing that is Holy on this earth.

If one must believe in talking snakes to understand your view, I am glad I do not.

Wow an inspired talking snake.

Regards
DL


Its quite clear that you believe in NOTHING, except your own wants and needs, (and claiming to be religious for these reasons only is worthless) and again this is your action of free will and does not affect what is ACTUALLY WRITTEN and as demonstrated which YOU cannot disprove. Thus, the constant insults to the faith of another? Because you cannot disprove what is actually written, which is MY ONLY CONCERN, demonstrating what is actually written as compared to how people try to twist it into something that is not written. As I said, when one simply ignores what is demonstrated in actual writing there is no reasoning with them....for there in NO REASON IN THEM only EMOTIONALISM...like a female defending their offspring. (RD)
Greatest I am cv
 
  1  
Reply Thu 28 Aug, 2008 10:43 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;58988 wrote:
Its quite clear that you believe in NOTHING, except your own wants and needs, (and claiming to be religious for these reasons only is worthless) and again this is your action of free will and does not affect what is ACTUALLY WRITTEN and as demonstrated which YOU cannot disprove. Thus, the constant insults to the faith of another? Because you cannot disprove what is actually written, which is MY ONLY CONCERN, demonstrating what is actually written as compared to how people try to twist it into something that is not written. As I said, when one simply ignores what is demonstrated in actual writing there is no reasoning with them....for there in NO REASON IN THEM only EMOTIONALISM...like a female defending their offspring. (RD)


Can you prove talking snakes or fish that spit out men after three days?

Regards
DL
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 01:44 am
@Greatest I am cv,
Greatest I am;58993 wrote:
Can you prove talking snakes or fish that spit out men after three days?

Regards
DL


I have the written testimony of the scriptures that declare such as the miraculous has taken place. The question is....can you prove that it did not happen? I can no more prove the miraculous than you can disprove it. It is called the miraculous for a reason, because it is not limited by the laws of physical reality, thus it can not be measured by that which it is not limited by. As you cannot declare that it is not true by presenting facts that ARE NOT evidenced, only opined. But I do have 39 books of the Old Testament and 27 books of the New Testament, ALL PROFESSING to the same truth, sworn before God and written over a 1500 year period by at least 40 different inspired writers that have testified that is true. What proof do you have that it is not as such? Since you are the one claiming that it is not as such....PROVE IT. I have presented my proof, statements from professed eyewitness accounts...and I believe them, now all you have to do to PROSECUTE your claim that they are lying, would be to offer evidence that supports your claim. And OPINION does not support anything except your state of mind. What I have presented are not my own words but words of those that swore before God and man that which they witnessed was true....what evidence do you have besides your opinion that debunks the sworn statements of these men? (R)
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 03:49 am
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;58998 wrote:
I have the written testimony of the scriptures that declare such as the miraculous has taken place. The question is....can you prove that it did not happen?


Counter-intuitive you are red-devil!

Does a lawyer have to prove his client did not commit a crime? No! The burden of proof lies on those who believe such things happened.
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 07:56 am
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;59005 wrote:
Counter-intuitive you are red-devil!

Does a lawyer have to prove his client did not commit a crime? No! The burden of proof lies on those who believe such things happened.


When any accusation is levied against another...the burden of proofing the guilt of the accusation of wrong (such as lying) is always placed upon THE PROSECUTION. The innocent remain as such UNTIL PROVEN GUILTY. The charge of presenting untruths and misrepresentations are always being levied against those that profess a belief in the testimonies of the Scriptures, yet the prosecution always wishes the accused to prove the fact that the statements of another are true, even after it is sworn to be as much. The next move is upon the PROSECUTION, to discredit said testimony, not those that ALREADY BELIEVE. As of yet NO proof has been presented that discredits any truths found in the Holy Scriptures. One would think that after thousands of years in the attempt thereof in discrediting this testimony the proof would come rather easily...IF IT WERE LIES.

You hit the nail on the head, as far as common sense goes. The question is, WHO LEVIED THE CHARGES OF WRONGDOING IN THE FIRST PLACE? Your counter counter intuitive statement suggests that the faithful have accused someone else, when all the faithful are doing is presenting TESTIMONY of witness...NO? As I said the burden of proof is upon the ACCUSER not the ACCUSED. Only in the mind of a LIBERAL pretending to be CONSERVATIVE could such inversion occur...as the ID (inner desire) is exposed. The crime is being levied against the Holy Scriptures...not the accusers. The defense rests until such time as the prosecution presents EVIDENCE of their charges..if not the case shall be dismissed for lack of evidence.

And the fact of such has already been played out in the secular court room, believe it or not, not once but several times and each time the scriptures having prevailed DUE TO LACK OF EVIDENCE. A standing reward placed by a Christian group of scientists that challenges anyone to prove the theory of evolution and disprove the scriptural account of creation....this standing reward has been claimed and taken to court on several occasions but still remains UNCLAIMED as in each instance those wishing to claim the reward have FAILED IN COURT to prove their case. Perhaps this is the constant demand for the inverted process of assuming guilt until proven innocent. (RD)

Correlation of the Bible and Science
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 08:14 am
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;59019 wrote:


You hit the nail on the head, as far as common sense goes. The question is, WHO LEVIED THE CHARGES OF WRONGDOING IN THE FIRST PLACE? Your counter counter intuitive statement suggests that the faithful have accused someone else, when all the faithful are doing is presenting TESTIMONY of witness...NO? As I said the burden of proof is upon the ACCUSER not the ACCUSED. (RD)


well "greatest i am" asked if you believe in talking snakes and you insisted that those things have happened so the burden of proof is on you. Questioning the veracity of a belief or claim requires no evidence.

- a claim requires evidence.

- questioning a claim requires no evidence.


asking someone to prove that something is not true is logically fallacious!
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 08:23 am
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;59020 wrote:
well "greatest i am" asked if you believe in talking snakes and you insisted that those things have happened so the burden of proof is on you. Questioning the veracity of a belief or claim requires no evidence.

- a claim requires evidence.

- questioning a claim requires no evidence.


asking someone to prove that something is not true is logically fallacious!


No, indeed what I said, was I believe in the testimony of those that said as much. Now the burden of disproving THEIR sworn testimony is upon the accuser. I have nothing to prove.....it was he that levied the charge of lying upon the scriptures, and his proof was "I have never seen a talking snake...therefore they cannot exist". And this is trying to prove something by a display of FACTS NOT IN EVIDENCE. As no one can prove the non existence of something simply because they have not seen such. As this indeed would be considered in the range of the miraculous (that which is not bound by physical law) and indeed it is impossible to measure that which does not obey physical law by presenting physical law as proof. The ONLY WAY TO DISPROVE the miraculous would be to PROVE that which is claimed to be as such was wrongly misrepresented and occurred well within the range of normalcy or prove that he who presented testimony was lying....proceed. I have NOTHING TO PROVE, I believe. And tell a judge that questioning the sworn testimony of any witness does not require proof that they are lying, and you would be laughed out of the courtroom, especially when YOU are the one accusing another of lying. Again the burden of proof is upon the prosecution not the defendant. What? Does not the law of the land apply when religion is accused of lying? I thought EVERYONE WAS INNOCENT until proof was presented otherwise. (R)
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 08:51 am
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;59021 wrote:
No, indeed what I said, was I believe in the testimony of those that said as much. Now the burden of disproving THEIR sworn testimony is upon the accuser.


Nope sorry, that's not how it works. The burden of proof does not switch sides....EVER! If the supposed 'testimony' does not meet the requirement of evidence then you must provide more evidence. The requirement of evidence varies depending on the claim. There is saying amongst scientists, "extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence". In debate the disbeliever or skeptic always has an advantage, because in reality there are more false beliefs than true ones.

The burden of proof always lies on positive assertions and it does not move, not even when some evidence is provided. In any academic field it is always presumed that a claim or belief is false until the demand for evidence is met. Even when the demand for evidence is met the burden of proof still remains on positive assertions. If someone questions a claim that has met the demand for evidence, you simply show them the evidence and that should suffice in convincing them.


*PLEASE READ THIS AND THEN RE-READ IT.
Campbell34
 
  1  
Reply Fri 29 Aug, 2008 10:19 pm
@rugonnacry,
rugonnacry;52420 wrote:
LOL... Jews and arab people live in the same land and fighting over the same land, I lump them together, unless the specific topic is Jews VS Arabs


The God of the Bible gave that land to the Jews long ago. And the God of the Bible has allow the Jews to return to that land to anger the nations of the world. Most Jews, and the Arab people fighting over that land do not know God. God is preparing an object lesson for all involved.
0 Replies
 
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Sat 30 Aug, 2008 06:14 am
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;59022 wrote:
Nope sorry, that's not how it works. The burden of proof does not switch sides....EVER! If the supposed 'testimony' does not meet the requirement of evidence then you must provide more evidence. The requirement of evidence varies depending on the claim. There is saying amongst scientists, "extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence". In debate the disbeliever or skeptic always has an advantage, because in reality there are more false beliefs than true ones.

The burden of proof always lies on positive assertions and it does not move, not even when some evidence is provided. In any academic field it is always presumed that a claim or belief is false until the demand for evidence is met. Even when the demand for evidence is met the burden of proof still remains on positive assertions. If someone questions a claim that has met the demand for evidence, you simply show them the evidence and that should suffice in convincing them.


*PLEASE READ THIS AND THEN RE-READ IT.


First of all WE ARE NOT SPEAKING OF THE HALLS OF ACADEMIA (and their liberal attitude of inverting the court system) The very reason for the inversion would be so they can claim that THEORY be considered the same as Factual information....but we are speaking of the Constitutional right to be considered innocent until proven guilty. There are in fact, more than 3 sworn statements of testimony, sworn before God and man that what is stated is TRUTH, in fact there are 27 Books in the NT. and another 39 in the OT, all containing sworn testimony, as these books are called TESTAMENTS for a reason. Nowhere do these men and or women state the liberal description of truth..aka, THIS POINTS TO, THIS SUGGESTS, THIS LEADS ONE TO BELIEVE, etc., the scriptures are self professed to be TRUTH. -- John 17:17. The eyewitness account of more than 3 people has always been the standard of PROOF. If the prosecution does not believe their sworn testimony to be true, the accusation of Perjury (a crime) must be proven...and not simply stated as "hun ha"..."Nope"...you're lying, as said by the prosecution, and then demand that the eye witness prove what they have stated. Again, the BURDEN OF PROVING GUILT is upon they that levied the charges in the first place....not those that are accused. You are correct....THE BURDEN OF PROOF never switches, simply because the prosecutor CAN NOT disprove a statement, and thereby DEMANDS the defendant provide their leg work. Are not you AND YOUR LIKE the ones presenting the charges of falsehood? If not...what is your point, as I said, we the faithful already believe and have NOTHING TO PROVE. As time and time again, the charges presented by your kind as suggesting what the scriptures are declaring, by misrepresenting the contextual structure of the entire message are proven wrong by the very same SWORN TESTIMONIES...when correctly considered IN CONTEXT.

As I said..a perfect example of what happens when YOUR idea of proof is brought into any courtroom as it has happened more than once when the scriptures where taken to court, with the scriptures prevailing in each instance, when Academia's standard of proof was attempted in the courtroom, where, suggests, leads to, points, etc ....is not considered PROOF. We, the faithful, cannot prove your case for you, for we, unlike you accept the scriptures as TRUTH. (R)

www.flmilw.org/CorrOfTheBilblAndSciense.html
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Sat 30 Aug, 2008 08:40 am
@RED DEVIL cv,
RED DEVIL;59048 wrote:
First of all WE ARE NOT SPEAKING OF THE HALLS OF ACADEMIA (and their liberal attitude of inverting the court system) The very reason for the inversion would be so they can claim that THEORY be considered the same as Factual information.


Theories cannot become facts.....

Quote:

...but we are speaking of the Constitutional right to be considered innocent until proven guilty.


Which still go by the same principals.

Quote:
There are in fact, more than 3 sworn statements of testimony, sworn before God and man that what is stated is TRUTH, in fact there are 27 Books in the NT. and another 39 in the OT,


You will need more than just a few people's words. A claim as bold as talking snakes will require solid tangible evidence and lots of it.


Quote:
all containing sworn testimony, as these books are called TESTAMENTS for a reason. Nowhere do these men and or women state the liberal description of truth..aka, THIS POINTS TO, THIS SUGGESTS, THIS LEADS ONE TO BELIEVE, etc.,


I would trust it more in that case, leaving a degree of uncertainty is best and more accurate. Anyone claiming to have absolute truth of anything is being intellectually dishonest and is to not be trusted. All humans have a limited mental capacity, are subject to fallibility, external pressures, personal interpretations, after-thought, perspective and bias because of this we cannot know anything absolutely. Honest men admit this.


Quote:
the scriptures are self professed to be TRUTH.


and thus why they are unreliable....


Quote:
-- John 17:17. The eyewitness account of more than 3 people has always been the standard of PROOF.


Excuse me for not accepting an out-dated standard of proof especially from an ancient text that's accuracy is in question of in the first place.


Quote:
If the prosecution does not believe their sworn testimony to be true, the accusation of Perjury (a crime) must be proven.


Proving that someone lied (a positive assertion) is different than questioning the original claim to which before said person is in support of. In other words, im not saying that person was lying but rather questioning what they believe. And yes there is a difference!

Quote:

..and not simply stated as "hun ha"..."Nope"...you're lying, as said by the prosecution, and then demand that the eye witness prove what they have stated. Again, the BURDEN OF PROVING GUILT is upon they that levied the charges in the first place....not those that are accused. You are correct....THE BURDEN OF PROOF never switches, simply because the prosecutor CAN NOT disprove a statement, and thereby DEMANDS the defendant provide their leg work.


ok

Quote:
Are not you AND YOUR LIKE the ones presenting the charges of falsehood?


Again, no! Because i'm not claiming that 'said person is lying (a positive statement), just question the belief of the person , which is a negative statement and thus does not require proving.

Quote:
If not...what is your point, as I said, we the faithful already believe and have NOTHING TO PROVE. As time and time again, the charges presented by your kind as suggesting what the scriptures are declaring, by misrepresenting the contextual structure of the entire message are proven wrong by the very same SWORN TESTIMONIES...when correctly considered IN CONTEXT.


the sworn testimonies do not meet the demand for evidence.

Quote:
As I said..a perfect example of what happens when YOUR idea of proof is brought into any courtroom as it has happened more than once when the scriptures where taken to court, with the scriptures prevailing in each instance, when Academia's standard of proof was attempted in the courtroom, where, suggests, leads to, points, etc ....is not considered PROOF.


proof exists only in linguistics and math. The lay people often refer to things as proof when it is only evidence. Learning the difference between proof and evidence is key in debate.


Quote:
We, the faithful, cannot prove your case for you, for we, unlike you accept the scriptures as TRUTH.


unmerited acceptance. There is simply not enough evidence to support your beliefs, which is fine as long as you accept your beliefs on faith and do not claim to be supported by facts.
RED DEVIL cv
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Sep, 2008 02:00 pm
@Fatal Freedoms,
Fatal_Freedoms;59052 wrote:
Theories cannot become facts.....



Which still go by the same principals.



You will need more than just a few people's words. A claim as bold as talking snakes will require solid tangible evidence and lots of it.




I would trust it more in that case, leaving a degree of uncertainty is best and more accurate. Anyone claiming to have absolute truth of anything is being intellectually dishonest and is to not be trusted. All humans have a limited mental capacity, are subject to fallibility, external pressures, personal interpretations, after-thought, perspective and bias because of this we cannot know anything absolutely. Honest men admit this.




and thus why they are unreliable....




Excuse me for not accepting an out-dated standard of proof especially from an ancient text that's accuracy is in question of in the first place.




Proving that someone lied (a positive assertion) is different than questioning the original claim to which before said person is in support of. In other words, im not saying that person was lying but rather questioning what they believe. And yes there is a difference!



ok



Again, no! Because i'm not claiming that 'said person is lying (a positive statement), just question the belief of the person , which is a negative statement and thus does not require proving.



the sworn testimonies do not meet the demand for evidence.



proof exists only in linguistics and math. The lay people often refer to things as proof when it is only evidence. Learning the difference between proof and evidence is key in debate.




unmerited acceptance. There is simply not enough evidence to support your beliefs, which is fine as long as you accept your beliefs on faith and do not claim to be supported by facts.


Again...circular reasoning while presenting no EVIDENCE that would make any of the truths presented in the scriptures lies? I particularly enjoy how you SUGGEST that you are not declaring the statements offered in the TESTAMENTS of the Holy Scriptures lies....but, question their truth. And then ask a STRAW third party to prove that they are not such as lies, simply because of a professed belief in them, instead of going about disproving their validity yourself after you have disavowed their truth.....can you not see the continual circle? Very LIBERAL of you indeed. Again, the way that you are portraying our system of jurisprudence has actually been attempted in the courtroom, with the scriptures being victorious as those that questioned the validity of the scriptures and attempted to disprove such by YOUR DECLARED methodology lost due to one simple legal concept.....LACK OF EVIDENCE. The best that you can possibly hope for is a PUSH, for indeed you can not discount the word of someone without actually having any proof whatsoever that constitutes perjury, while on the other hand, I being a third party have NOTHING TO PROVE for I accept them as they are professed to be...TRUTH. But, I must admit, it is fun to see the tables turned and watch the pseudo intellectual chase their tail with large words and no proof. By simply presenting the fact of what is actually recorded in the Holy Scriptures as opposed to what is SUGGESTED that is written.

For indeed it is the fool that convinces himself that there is no God -- Ps. 53:1

In fact there is an entire list of what constitutes the position of a fool as declared in the word of God

A fool does not want to learn the truth -- Pr. 1:22 He will despise good advise -- Pr. 15:15. He may act like he is listening, but evidenced by nothing changing (like continuing to present the same argument ad nauseam, even after being debunked), we know they have never truly listened. As inevitably, the fool reveals himself as such -- Pr. 13:16. A fool is merely interested in saying his piece, he is not interested in understanding the position of another, he only wants to spout off with large words -- Pr. 18:2. But, once his mouth starts flapping we find there is nothing of substance Pr. 12:23. A fools speaks but foolishness -- Pr. 15:2. Because he has nothing of value to say, he makes up for this by with many words -- Eccl. 5:3. A fool is lead by his emotions and accepts anything he hears...with the exception of the truth -- Pr. 14:15. He is easily lead into sexual sins (perversions) -- Pr. 7:6-27. He likes to pick fights -- Pr. 18:6-7. He middles into the affairs of others, stirring strife -- Pr. 20:3. He is quick to anger -- Eccl. 7:9. Though easily angered, he hides his feelings, using backstabbing methods to accomplish his ends -- Pr. 10:18. A FOOL IS ARROGANT -- Pr. 28:26. He mocks sin -- Pr. 14:9. When faced with evil, he ignores it (sounds like the "black messiah" does it not?) -- Pr 22:3. He may act religious but does not live the proper life -- Luke 11: 39-40. It is the fool indeed that declares there is no God -- Ps 53:1. They have decided not to retain the knowledge of God -- Rom. 1:20-22. It's not that the evidence is not there, but rather the fool would rather believe the world exists without God....for then he convinces himself that he is at liberty to do as he will.....WITHOUT JUDGMENT. (RD)
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Sep, 2008 04:25 pm
@RED DEVIL cv,
WHAT THE **** IS SO HARD TO UNDERSTAND!?


You say the bible is all true.....[SIZE="6"]Then prove it![/SIZE]





You seem to think that i have to prove that someone is lying in order for them to be untrue....sorry...no. That's NOT how it works. Just because someone says something is true does not require me to prove them liars.


You know...you are either being purposely obtuse or evasive but it is really getting on my nerves.
Fatal Freedoms
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Sep, 2008 04:29 pm
@Fatal Freedoms,
The burden of proof always lies on positive assertions (that the bible is true) and it does not move, not even when some evidence is provided (someone said it was true). In any academic field it is always presumed that a claim or belief (that the bible is true) is false until the demand for evidence is met.
 

Related Topics

 
Copyright © 2024 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.05 seconds on 05/17/2024 at 02:20:02