0
   

Does the liguistic copula have more than a gestural meaning?

 
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Fri 25 Jun, 2010 04:48 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

You will find my argument developed extensively if you investigate my eight years of posts, but as a naive realist you are unlikely to understand it. Suffice to say that if your "knowledge" of ontology is anything like your "knowledge" of linguistics the chances of such understanding do not look promising.


Think you could say what your answer to my simple point that since we know that the Moon antedates observers, it cannot be that the existence of the Moon depends on its being observed? Simple question. It deserves a simple answer. Try it. Your telling me that your answer is contained in eight years of previous posts makes me suspicious. It make me suspect that not merely have you no answer to my objection, but that my objection has never even occurred to you.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 12:05 am
@kennethamy,
If you think that the relationship between the terms "existence", "observation" and "time" is a simple matter, then you have not thought about it sufficiently for me to converse with you.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 01:10 am
@kennethamy,
A Wiki view of that "simple question"
Quote:
Schools of subjectivism, objectivism and relativism existed at various times in the 20th century, and the postmodernists and body philosophers tried to reframe all these questions in terms of bodies taking some specific action in an environment. This relied to a great degree on insights derived from scientific research into animals taking instinctive action in natural and artificial settings — as studied by biology, ecology, and cognitive science.
The processes by which bodies related to environments became of great concern, and the idea of being itself became difficult to really define. What did people mean when they said "A is B", "A must be B", "A was B"...? Some linguists advocated dropping the verb "to be" from the English language, leaving "E Prime", supposedly less prone to bad abstractions. Others, mostly philosophers, tried to dig into the word and its usage. Heidegger distinguished human being as existence from the being of things in the world. Heidegger proposes that our way of being human and the way the world is for us are cast historically through a fundamental ontological questioning. These fundamental ontological categories provide the basis for communication in an age: a horizon of unspoken and seemingly unquestionable background meanings, such as human beings understood unquestioningly as subjects and other entities understood unquestioningly as objects. Because these basic ontological meanings both generate and are regenerated in everyday interactions, the locus of our way of being in an historical epoch is the communicative event of language in use. For Heidegger, however, communication in the first place is not among human beings, but language itself shapes up in response to questioning (the inexhaustible meaning of) being. Even the focus of traditional ontology on the 'whatness' or 'quidditas' of beings in their substantial, standing presence can be shifted to pose the question of the 'whoness' of human being itself.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 05:01 am
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

If you think that the relationship between the terms "existence", "observation" and "time" is a simple matter, then you have not thought about it sufficiently for me to converse with you.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 05:08 am
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

If you think that the relationship between the terms "existence", "observation" and "time" is a simple matter, then you have not thought about it sufficiently for me to converse with you.


What has what I think about terms "existence", "observation" and "time" to do with the point I made? Nothing at all. You may have forgotten my point, so I will repeat it for you. It is this: Since we know that the Moon predates (by many years) the existence of any observers, then how would it be possible for the existence of the Moon to depend on its being observed. Now, rather than talking about me and my deficiencies, please talk about my argument. That is what philosophers do.
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 05:11 am
@GoshisDead,
GoshisDead wrote:

kennethamy wrote:

fresco wrote:

Quote:
And yet all of these (is's) are categorized as states of being which is what a copula infers, which is what the thread is about.


Precisely ! And "states of being" are never independent of "states of the observer"


That is false. There need be no observer for the Moon to exist. We know that because we know that the Moon existed for many millions of years before any observer existed. If you do not believe that is true, then you can look it up.


Come on Ken, we are talking about language, in order for someone to say something descriptive there is necessarily an observer, even if s/he is simply observing her own imagination. You can't tell me a hard nosed materialist like yourself thinks that something can be said without an observer?


I did not think we were talking about saying things. Nothing can be said unless there is someone to say it. I thought someone said that no objects can exist without an observer. And that is obviously false, for the reason I gave. Any even partly educated person knows that the existence of the Moon antedates the existence of any observers. So how could the existence of the Moon depend on its being observed? The answer is, nothing at all. This has nothing whatsoever to do with talking about anything, and certainly nothing to do with the existence of language. Language cannot exist without speakers. But the Moon can exist without observers. The first has nothing whatever to do with the second.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 08:16 am
@kennethamy,
Do you understand this ?

Quote:
The processes by which bodies related to environments became of great concern, and the idea of being itself became difficult to really define. What did people mean when they said "A is B", "A must be B", "A was B"...? Some linguists advocated dropping the verb "to be" from the English language, leaving "E Prime", supposedly less prone to bad abstractions. Others, mostly philosophers, tried to dig into the word and its usage.


or this ?

Quote:
All linguistic activity or "languaging" takes place "in the praxis of living: we human beings find ourselves as living systems immersed in it". Languaging, for Maturana, does not mean conveying news or any kind of "information", but refers to a social activity that arises from a coordination of actions that have been tuned by mutual adaptation. Without such coordination of acting there would be no possibility of describing and, consequently, no way for the distinctions made by an actor to become conscious. To become aware of distinctions, is called observing.

... an observer has no operational basis to make any statement or claim about objects, entities or relations as if they existed independently of what he or she does.
(Von Glasersfeld citing Maturana)

or this ?

Quote:
What we observe is not nature itself, but nature exposed to our method of questioning.
(Heisenberg)




fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 04:18 pm
@kennethamy,
Silence speaks volumes !
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 04:37 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

Do you understand this ?

Quote:
The processes by which bodies related to environments became of great concern, and the idea of being itself became difficult to really define. What did people mean when they said "A is B", "A must be B", "A was B"...? Some linguists advocated dropping the verb "to be" from the English language, leaving "E Prime", supposedly less prone to bad abstractions. Others, mostly philosophers, tried to dig into the word and its usage.


or this ?

Quote:
All linguistic activity or "languaging" takes place "in the praxis of living: we human beings find ourselves as living systems immersed in it". Languaging, for Maturana, does not mean conveying news or any kind of "information", but refers to a social activity that arises from a coordination of actions that have been tuned by mutual adaptation. Without such coordination of acting there would be no possibility of describing and, consequently, no way for the distinctions made by an actor to become conscious. To become aware of distinctions, is called observing.

... an observer has no operational basis to make any statement or claim about objects, entities or relations as if they existed independently of what he or she does.
(Von Glasersfeld citing Maturana)

or this ?

Quote:
What we observe is not nature itself, but nature exposed to our method of questioning.
(Heisenberg)







What is the "this" I am supposed to understand. If "this" implies that the existence of the Moon did not antedate the existence of observers, so that the Moon did not exist independent of observers, then "this" is false, since we know that the existence of the Moon antedated the existence of observers, and thus, that the Moon existed independent of observers. I think you had better look it up, since you don't seem to believe me. I am surprised, since I thought that every educated person knew that the Moon is older than people. (I would have thought that Heisenberg knew that too).
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  2  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 04:38 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

Silence speaks volumes !


Actually, silence means that I have been doing something else, and have not got round to replying to your post. That is what silence speaks. (Wherever did you get the idea that it is a proof that something is true that someone happens to say that it is true? Unless that person is authoritative on the matter? Otherwise, it is only an argument from authority, and then the question is whether the authority is a credible one).
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 04:54 pm
@kennethamy,
Answer the question: Do you understand any of those quotations ?
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 05:05 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

Answer the question: Do you understand any of those quotations ?


The Heisenberg one. I haven't the foggiest idea what the other two are about. But the Heisenberg one is not inconsistent with the fact that the Moon preexists observers. If it were, it would be silly. But I am sure that Heisenberg knew that elementary scientific fact. In fact, I daresay that any educated person over the age of about 11 knows it.
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 05:48 pm
@kennethamy,
Thank you for your honesty. But alas you don't understand Heisenberg either.

Note the phrase "our method of questioning" implies the " facts" are species specific or even culture specific. You and I may agree as "Westerners" about how we use the concept "the moon" such that we might play out some historical documentary of "its history" in our mind's eye, but the event of that visualisation is always contextually triggered for a particular purpose, Such visualizations need to be contrasted with that of ,say, an aborigine tribesman who believes say "that he and the moon are "being dreamed" by some spirit entity". And there are other cultures whose concept of "time" is spectacularly different from our everyday one insofar as in their language there are only two tenses "the now" and "the not now" !
From this we might be moved reconsider our own conditioning and note the Einsteinian point that "time is a psychological construction". We may even conclude that without the psychology of "an observer", concepts of "persistence", "before" and "after" would have no meaning.


ACB
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 06:39 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:
Quote:
What we observe is not nature itself, but nature exposed to our method of questioning.
(Heisenberg)

This implies (a) that there is an entity called "nature" which is distinct from our method of questioning, and (b) that if nature itself were different, what we observe would be different. Do you agree that that is the implication?

There must ultimately be such a thing as "nature independent of us", otherwise we would have an infinite regress when we attempt to talk about it ("our concept of [our concept of [......]] nature").

Our consciousness is a necessary condition of our observing what we observe, and language is a necessary condition of our expressing what we express; but neither is a sufficient condition. Independent reality must be factored in also, to explain why we observe X rather than Y.
0 Replies
 
kennethamy
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 06:42 pm
@fresco,
fresco wrote:

Thank you for your honesty. But alas you don't understand Heisenberg either.

Note the phrase "our method of questioning" implies the " facts" are species specific or even culture specific. You and I may agree as "Westerners" about how we use the concept "the moon" such that we might play out some historical documentary of "its history" in our mind's eye, but the event of that visualisation is always contextually triggered for a particular purpose, Such visualizations need to be contrasted with that of ,say, an aborigine tribesman who believes say "that he and the moon are "being dreamed" by some spirit entity". And there are other cultures whose concept of "time" is spectacularly different from our everyday one insofar as in their language there are only two tenses "the now" and "the not now" !
From this we might be moved reconsider our own conditioning and note the Einsteinian point that "time is a psychological construction". We may even conclude that without the psychology of "an observer", concepts of "persistence", "before" and "after" would have no meaning.





Eh, you don't think that the existence of the Moon predates the existence of
people (and therefore, observers) or do you think so? How about answering that question? It is simple enough, isn't it? (If you don't think so, I suggest you look it up on Google or Bing). I am not much one for arguments from authority unless the authority is: a. relevant, and b. is a credible authority. I do know about Heisenberg. Do you think that he believed (or did not believe) that the Moon antedated the existence of observers? And if he did, what conclusion do you think he would draw from that fact about whether the existence of the Moon was (or was not) dependent on observation. Time you began answering some questions. Don't you think? (And preferably without the obfuscation of various theories of the nature of time, which have absolutely nothing to do with it, but which do serve to avoid drawing the obvious conclusion).
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sat 26 Jun, 2010 11:42 pm
@kennethamy,
Fom Googling your username/Philosophy Forums
Quote:
Profile of kennethamy

This member has been banned. (Jun 15, 2009 - 5:26 AM by Postmodern Beatnik. Reason: returning banned user)

Yes. It's interesting what you can find when you look things up !

and from "I love philosophy"
Quote:
by Dunamis » Sat Aug 06, 2005 8:22 pm

Kennethamy,

"What has that to do with the question of whether if we have to discuss whether something is obvious, it is obvious."

Because in philosophy, we investigate the "background of what [we] already believe", so to dismiss some ideas as obvious, that is obviously false or obviously true, is to operate unreflectively from the very background we are supposedly investigating.


The word "Troll" is springing to mind !
0 Replies
 
Razzleg
 
  2  
Reply Sun 27 Jun, 2010 01:09 am
@kennethamy,
I apologize for abandoning this thread lately. I'm afraid that non-internet life intruded.

kennethamy wrote:

Now, rather than talking about me and my deficiencies, please talk about my argument. That is what philosophers do.


I have to say, Ken, I don't know that anyone has taken the thread further astray than you have. In our last exchange, you put several questions to me, most insistently a request for my argument. I'm afraid that I do not know how to answer this in any other way than I already have. Are you unable to present your views in any way other than as a contrary argument? Honestly, I cannot help but to imagine you at a restaurant:

Waitperson: What will you have for dessert?
kennethamy: How am I supposed to know? I can't predict the future! What is available for dessert? I'll have the apple pie.
Waitperson: I'm afraid that we've run out of apple pie, is there anything else you would like?
kennethamy: What?! I don't understand you. Present your arguments.


I addressed your concerns as well as I could at the time, revised my examples, and requested additional information. You, on the other hand, failed to address my questions, even when I limited the focus of those questions. Do you have a response? Addressing the questions put to them is often another thing that philosophers do. I am willing to accept criticism as to the premises of the questions, but since they involve your preferred version and example of the copula I'd appreciate it if you would dignify (or lacking that, at least correct) them with an answer.

Can you address the questions in this quote:
Razzleg wrote:

Well, I can't understand why you don't understand what "the dawn seems red" means while you are able to understand what "the dog is brown" means? But if you'll allow it, perhaps we can use your incomprehension to further the conversation: What is the difference between these two statements that makes one the object of understanding and one the cause of confusion? They seem to be similarly structured sentences. I do not think that "seems" carries any exotic "philosophese" overtones that "is" lacks. "Red" and "brown" both name colors. "The dog" and "the dawn" also both serve nominal roles. What do you perceive the difference to be? I'm not saying there isn't a difference, but what is it from your perspective? If both statements operate in similar ways, why is only one accessible to you, what blocks your access to the other sentence?

Does the statement, "the dog seems brown," mean anything to you? It seems similar to me to "the dog is brown", although the copulae have slightly different connotations. Would you say that the "seems" dog-sentence has a logical structure that you could diagram in a similar way to the "is" statement? What if I suggested that the term "seems" classified dog as a brown thing, so in this way the the end result is much like the "is" statement. However, it's manner of operating and getting to that end result is different. "Seems" does so by classifying both terms under "appearances", with dog being placed in the subcategory of subjects and brown in the subcategory of adjectives. The use of "seem" is conditional, and refers only to a particular case in which this adjective applies to this subject, although it need not apply. The implication of necessity has been removed. Does this mean anything to you? If not, how would you correct my mistake? Since both "is" and "seem" seem to be used in similar ways, does this make them semantically interchangeable? Or could the substitution of one for the other mean something different despite their similar use?


If you want to show this fly the way out of the bottle, you are going to have to persuade him that you are not simply leading him into another bottle. Otherwise, what is the benefit?
fresco
 
  1  
Reply Sun 27 Jun, 2010 01:20 am
@Razzleg,
Full marks for tolerance !
0 Replies
 
GoshisDead
 
  1  
Reply Sun 27 Jun, 2010 01:55 am
We had the same problem on the other forum. Troll is the proper word.
0 Replies
 
Razzleg
 
  1  
Reply Sun 27 Jun, 2010 03:38 am
@fresco,
I should preface my comments by saying that I've found many of your comments helpful, and the concerns I express in this post are not an objection to all of your other points.

fresco wrote:

Taking "transformational grammar" for example, the sentence
"The dog is brown" could be interpreted as one "surface" realization of the deep structure "the dog is a brown object". Another surface realization of that deep structure might be the phrase "the brown dog".

But that is merely one angle on the above arguments. We could also explore the field of comparative linguists where the English verb to be maps to different verbs in Spanish (aproximately)ser to be in a particular state, and estar to be actively doing something. It follows that the two OP sentences about "weather" could be associated with these different verbs.

The third point I would make, and for me the most significant one is that as soon as we engage in contrastive analysis we are taking utterances out of their original context. In other words "grammatical analysis" is an artificial academic pursuit rather than a "natural one". As Chomsky pointed out. children pick up " the grammar of their native language" without active instruction, and even the latter tends to be about exceptions to rules.
There is even an argument (by Wexler) that it is impossible to adequately teach a second language to a foreigner without "cultural immersion"...but then of course the argument moves to one about "communicative adequacy",


Are you defending transformational grammar? I ask, because I have to express some reservations about it (as I find myself doing lately to other "Chomsky-like" concepts.) I question the efficacy of the metaphor of surface/deep structure regarding linguistic patterns. The metaphor implies that the deep structure is somehow "hidden". But whence is it hidden? (To some degree, the reservations I have about this concept are similar to my critical stance regarding Buber's idea of a "primary word".) In other words, what is a linguistic "deep structure's" ontological status?

I can imagine that one might insist that words have a finite number of ways, or paths of relation, in which they might be syntactically arranged so as to yield meaning in use, but to posit that there is an "unspeakable yet linguistic in nature" "the brown dog" -object seems absurd. Or perhaps I should better say, this seems to be a reification of an abstract. Is an object necessary, or mightn't there simply be a finite pattern consisting of a series of approximations.

It also seems to me that the act of translating and the act of critically taking-out-of-context share certain features, which while they might be academic, are no less relevant regarding the generation of meaning by use. Perhaps I could best illustrate my concerns by example:

Scene 1:
Razzleg wrote:

Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above. One turns to the other and says, "This weather is certainly wet." And the other person responds, "It's sure getting there."


Scene1.1 (a Pinter vignette):
Quote:

Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above.
Person 1 says, "It's raining."
Person 2 responds, "It is raining."


Scene 1.2 (a pantomime):
Quote:

Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above.
Person 1: bends elbow at the waist and turns palm upwards. Inclines head and arches an eyebrow.
Person 2: Shrugs.


Scene 1.3 (action movie):
Quote:

Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above.
Dolph Ludgren: It's bad out there.
Arnold Swartzenegger: Oh it will be. Come with me if you want to live.


Each of the subsequent versions of each of these dialogues seems to be a translation of the first (okay, the "if you want to live" comment is a stretch), and yet they do not seem to be intrinsically related to each other. What is the relationship between each of these dialogues? Is it plausible that each represents a dialogue between two surface manifestations, each of which represent a different "deep structure." If each enunciated-object of every surface enunciation is distinct, as you may have claimed, isn't the *shrug* in Sce. 1.2 ambiguous enough in meaning, since it's use partakes of ambiguity, to bring this into doubt?

I have again started writing this post very late at night (and I am wrapping it up even later), and I find myself running out of gas. I will do my best to rephrase these questions, and the concerns they represent, in a less obscure (read exhaustion-addled) way tomorrow. In the meantime, feel free to respond to these preliminary remarks. I'm sure that any responses will impact my further posts, although I will attempt to be honest when this happens.

bah.
 

Related Topics

There is a word for that! - Discussion by wandeljw
Best Euphemism for death and dying.... - Discussion by tsarstepan
Let pupils abandon spelling rules, says academic - Discussion by Robert Gentel
Help me!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! - Question by lululucy
phrase/name of male seducer - Question by Zah03
Shameful sexist languge must be banned! - Question by neologist
Three Word Phrase I REALLY Hate to See - Discussion by hawkeye10
Is History an art or a science? - Question by Olivier5
"Rooms" in a cave - Question by shua
 
Copyright © 2024 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 05/01/2024 at 08:22:20