@fresco,
I should preface my comments by saying that I've found many of your comments helpful, and the concerns I express in this post are not an objection to all of your other points.
fresco wrote:
Taking "transformational grammar" for example, the sentence
"The dog is brown" could be interpreted as one "surface" realization of the deep structure "the dog is a brown object". Another surface realization of that deep structure might be the phrase "the brown dog".
But that is merely one angle on the above arguments. We could also explore the field of comparative linguists where the English verb to be maps to different verbs in Spanish (aproximately)ser to be in a particular state, and estar to be actively doing something. It follows that the two OP sentences about "weather" could be associated with these different verbs.
The third point I would make, and for me the most significant one is that as soon as we engage in contrastive analysis we are taking utterances out of their original context. In other words "grammatical analysis" is an artificial academic pursuit rather than a "natural one". As Chomsky pointed out. children pick up " the grammar of their native language" without active instruction, and even the latter tends to be about exceptions to rules.
There is even an argument (by Wexler) that it is impossible to adequately teach a second language to a foreigner without "cultural immersion"...but then of course the argument moves to one about "communicative adequacy",
Are you defending transformational grammar? I ask, because I have to express some reservations about it (as I find myself doing lately to other "Chomsky-like" concepts.) I question the efficacy of the metaphor of surface/deep structure regarding linguistic patterns. The metaphor implies that the deep structure is somehow "hidden". But whence is it hidden? (To some degree, the reservations I have about this concept are similar to my critical stance regarding Buber's idea of a "primary word".) In other words, what is a linguistic "deep structure's" ontological status?
I can imagine that one might insist that words have a finite number of ways, or paths of relation, in which they might be syntactically arranged so as to yield meaning in use, but to posit that there is an "unspeakable yet linguistic in nature" "the brown dog" -object seems absurd. Or perhaps I should better say, this seems to be a reification of an abstract. Is an object necessary, or mightn't there simply be a finite pattern consisting of a series of approximations.
It also seems to me that the act of translating and the act of critically taking-out-of-context share certain features, which while they might be academic, are no less relevant regarding the generation of meaning by use. Perhaps I could best illustrate my concerns by example:
Scene 1:
Razzleg wrote:
Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above. One turns to the other and says, "This weather is certainly wet." And the other person responds, "It's sure getting there."
Scene1.1 (a Pinter vignette):
Quote:
Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above.
Person 1 says, "It's raining."
Person 2 responds, "It is raining."
Scene 1.2 (a pantomime):
Quote:
Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above.
Person 1: bends elbow at the waist and turns palm upwards. Inclines head and arches an eyebrow.
Person 2: Shrugs.
Scene 1.3 (action movie):
Quote:
Two people are leaning against the outside of a building together, drops of water begin to fall from the dark clouds above.
Dolph Ludgren: It's bad out there.
Arnold Swartzenegger: Oh it will be. Come with me if you want to live.
Each of the subsequent versions of each of these dialogues seems to be a translation of the first (okay, the "if you want to live" comment is a stretch), and yet they do not seem to be intrinsically related to each other. What is the relationship between each of these dialogues? Is it plausible that each represents a dialogue between two surface manifestations, each of which represent a different "deep structure." If each enunciated-object of every surface enunciation is distinct, as you
may have claimed, isn't the *shrug* in Sce. 1.2 ambiguous enough in meaning, since it's use partakes of ambiguity, to bring this into doubt?
I have again started writing this post very late at night (and I am wrapping it up even later), and I find myself running out of gas. I will do my best to rephrase these questions, and the concerns they represent, in a less obscure (read exhaustion-addled) way tomorrow. In the meantime, feel free to respond to these preliminary remarks. I'm sure that any responses will impact my further posts, although I will attempt to be honest when this happens.
bah.