@Dave Allen,
Dave Allen;113989 wrote:was it fair to call early Zoroastrianism a monotheism? Is was more akin to a duotheism I reckon.
Well, he specifically says that Ahura Mazda is the only "uncreated" god -- so it presents no greater a challenge than in Christian conceptions of Satan and of angels. Yes, it's not entirely reconciled in Zoroastrianism, but neither is it in Christianity. Post-Upanishad Hinduism of course has found ways to theologically justify itself as a monotheistic religion, i.e. even the trimurti of Shiva/Vishnu/Brahma (let alone all the Vedic gods) can be seen as aspects of Brahman.
Certainly the Zoroastrians were persecuted as polytheists and fire worshippers, but we probably all agree that it's unfair to interpret the beliefs of an ancient people based on characterizations made by their enemies -- I somehow get the sense that appreciating differences between people held less importance in the ancient world than now.
Dave Allen;113989 wrote:Therefore he is supposed to be older than the fathers of other monotheistic sects - but is the language used in his writings a good guide to that? Many charlatans use archaic language to imbue their 'prophecies' with an air of authority - look at the Book of Mormon.
His language from what I understand does not differ much from the language used in other parts of the Avesta that are not attributed to him, so I'm not sure you can make the case that he was affecting an ancient language. Furthermore, written prophecy was I'm sure quite unprecedented at the time and literacy / written language rare altogether. The writings of Zoroaster are very clearly attributed directly to him within the Avesta, i.e. not the writings of his disciples.
So like the post-Torah books in the Tanakh, like Ezekiel and Daniel, authorship by a single person is presumed but is incorporated into a compendium.
---------- Post added 12-24-2009 at 11:23 AM ----------
Arjuna;114042 wrote:I think magi would translate to sage. They were scientists and holymen in one. Bringing up the magi would suggest what we would understand to be a scientific basis for belief that Jesus was the Messiah... the King of the Jews.
Interesting point -- what you're suggesting is that the gospel authors included the magi in the story to lend astrologic legitimacy to the prophecy? I mean of course the authors of the gospels thought he was King of the Jews, but it's their use of the magi story and not what the magi in real life said or thought (if they existed).