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Who intuits that 10 is closer to infinity than 5?

 
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 02:15 pm
markr wrote:
raprap wrote:
However, in my mind a logic exists. You could partially prove the theorem using two sets, one set (A) containing all numbers (natural or otherwise) from 5 to positive infinity (inclusive?) and the other (B) all numbers from 10 to positive infinity. The first set (A) then contains numbers that are not in the second one (B), whilst the intersection of the two sets (A intersection B=B) is the same as the second set (B). Consequently, there is no one to one relationship from the elements in A to B and the sets do not have the same cardinality (number of elements).

So set A is larger than B. QED(?)

Rap


No. There is a one-to-one mapping of set B to set A:
b -> b-5
The sets have the same cardinality. Your proof doesn't apply to infinite sets.


1) Raprap, an infinite subset has the same cardinality as its superset.

2) markr, raprap's logic is correct...in that looking for a one-to-one and onto mapping is the preferred way of considering the size of an infinite set...although their cardinality is the same, this does show that B is a subset of A.

3) "size" is ill-defined on infinite sets. Yes B is a subset, but since they have infinite size, you cant say it is equal to or greater than or less than the size of the other.

4) Infinity has a different meaning in the context of an infinite set than an infinite value, you cannot make it into an infinite set to prove distance between a number and an infinite value.

5) markr, yes there is a one-to-one mapping, but raprap meant to say one-to-one AND onto...and it's not onto.
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 04:50 pm
Maybe I'm making it too simple.....but on a number line

Code:

0---1---2---3---4---5---...---Inf



It would seem that 5 is closer to infinity than 1 is. Another way to look at it would be is Infinity minus 5 less than Inifinity minus 1.
0 Replies
 
spendius
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 05:08 pm
Is infinity closer to infinity than 5? Or 10 if you prefer.
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 06:17 pm
spendius wrote:
Is infinity closer to infinity than 5? Or 10 if you prefer.


Woldn't infinity = infinity and thus be equally close to 5 or 10.
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 07:13 pm
maporsche wrote:
spendius wrote:
Is infinity closer to infinity than 5? Or 10 if you prefer.


Woldn't infinity = infinity and thus be equally close to 5 or 10.


If A = infinity and B = infinity, A does not equal B unless you know for some outside reason that A = B. Read the existing posts...
0 Replies
 
farmerman
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 07:23 pm
IS 5/0 A BIGGER VALUE THAN 10/0?
0 Replies
 
Chumly
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 07:32 pm
It's the same argument that infinity +1 is greater than ininfty -1. By definition you cannot have different sized infinities.
0 Replies
 
markr
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 07:48 pm
raprap wrote:
Consequently, there is no one to one relationship from the elements in A to B and the sets do not have the same cardinality (number of elements).


stuh505 wrote:
2) markr, raprap's logic is correct...in that looking for a one-to-one and onto mapping is the preferred way of considering the size of an infinite set...although their cardinality is the same, this does show that B is a subset of A.

5) markr, yes there is a one-to-one mapping, but raprap meant to say one-to-one AND onto...and it's not onto.


I took issue with the two conclusions:
1. there is no one-to-one relationship (I also assumed onto was implied)
2. the sets do not have the same cardinality

f(b) = b-5 is one-to-one AND onto with respect to sets A and B.

For every a in A, there is a b in B such that f(b) = a
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 08:33 pm
stuh505 wrote:
maporsche wrote:
spendius wrote:
Is infinity closer to infinity than 5? Or 10 if you prefer.


Woldn't infinity = infinity and thus be equally close to 5 or 10.


If A = infinity and B = infinity, A does not equal B unless you know for some outside reason that A = B. Read the existing posts...



Well of course A could = B. If A=1 and B=1, then A would equal B.

If A = Infinity
And B = Infinity
Then A = B
0 Replies
 
g day
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 08:41 pm
Cruising at 2 to the power infinity -1, (Ed. note - a special number that only has meaning in the field of improbability physics), Douglas Adams - the Hitch Hikers Guide to the Galaxy.

Guys this Infinity -1, squared, square root etc are all examples of field operations on numbers, the number line example above is the classical set up that gives folks head aches latter on.

In limits you can play with infinities carefully, in non Cartesian geometry where you have a horizon at infinity you can play with infinities, in integration you canplay with infinities, in set groupings and relative sizings you can play with infinities, but in all other places you shouldn't because you can't!

Infinity - 1 is a no sensiblle concept that maps to any meaningful number. Infinity maps to no sensible number. You can't do numerical operations on infinity like you can on numbers and arrive at any sensible conclusion, its Verbotten!

Also from memory, 1/0 = undefined, commonally thought of as equally all numbers simultenaously, so its one more example of where numbers and infinity don't mix.

Even 0 * infinity isn't well defined. The zero of a field times the concept (that isn't in the field) but is instead the idea that the field is not bounded, is non sensible. You can't multiply the lack of a boundary of a field by the zero generator of the field and get a number!
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 08:48 pm
g__day wrote:
Cruising at 2 to the power infinity -1, (Ed. note - a special number that only has meaning in the field of improbability physics), Douglas Adams - the Hitch Hikers Guide to the Galaxy.

Guys this Infinity -1, squared, square root etc are all examples of field operations on numbers, the number line example above is the classical set up that gives folks head aches latter on.

In limits you can play with infinities carefully, in non Cartesian geometry where you have a horizon at infinity you can play with infinities, in integration you canplay with infinities, in set groupings and relative sizings you can play with infinities, but in all other places you shouldn't because you can't!

Infinity - 1 is a no sensiblle concept that maps to any meaningful number. Infinity maps to no sensible number. You can't do numerical operations on infinity like you can on numbers and arrive at any sensible conclusion, its Verbotten!

Also from memory, 1/0 = undefined, commonally thought of as equally all numbers simultenaously, so its one more example of where numbers and infinity don't mix.

Even 0 * infinity isn't well defined. The zero of a field times the concept (that isn't in the field) but is instead the idea that the field is not bounded, is non sensible. You can't multiply the lack of a boundary of a field by the zero generator of the field and get a number!



Well, I'm no mathmatician so some of these terms are foreign to me. That being said it just seems logical that and infinite number - anything would be less than that infinite number.

Likewise, it seems logical that infinity - infinity would equal 0 (zero).
0 Replies
 
g day
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 09:21 pm
There is no such thing as an infinite "number" - that's an oxymoron. There are infinities, there are numbers, the two are distinct and different. One is a concept of no limits, another is a specific number in a field of numbers.

Infinities aren't numbers. You can't multiply zero by the lack of a boundary; zero only works on numbers.

It's like asking what's three times red - you can't sensibly multiple a colour by a number either.
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 09:56 pm
g__day wrote:
There is no such thing as an infinite "number" - that's an oxymoron. There are infinities, there are numbers, the two are distinct and different. One is a concept of no limits, another is a specific number in a field of numbers.

Infinities aren't numbers. You can't multiply zero by the lack of a boundary; zero only works on numbers.

It's like asking what's three times red - you can't sensibly multiple a colour by a number either.


Well, then we're out of my league on this topic.
0 Replies
 
stuh505
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 10:15 pm
Quote:

f(b) = b-5 is one-to-one AND onto with respect to sets A and B.

For every a in A, there is a b in B such that f(b) = a


Good point. It's defies intuition but you're right.
0 Replies
 
markr
 
  1  
Reply Thu 31 May, 2007 10:24 pm
The one that I think really defies intuition is that the cardinality of the integers is the same as the cardinality of the rationals.
0 Replies
 
raprap
 
  1  
Reply Fri 1 Jun, 2007 04:53 am
Excuse my lack of understanding. I concede that the cardinality of both sets are equal (infinite but countable) and I can understand that rationals and natural numbers have the same cardinality, but the sets in my mind are not one to one and onto (or necessary and sufficient as my old DE instructor called it). Set A contains the natural numbers 5 through 9, and set B doesn't. Granted you can define a necessary and sufficient function that does that mapping, but the sets themselves are unique (from each other) simply because of the condition listed above.

BTW this discussion rekindled a memory of a similar problem from my dimming past--a discussion of the equivalence of natural numbers and positive integers. If memory serves me well (& many times it doesn't) the sets aren't equivalent, mostly because one to one mapping function is not onto (natural number mapping onto positive integers isn't unique as |+/-a|=+a)

Rap
0 Replies
 
markr
 
  1  
Reply Fri 1 Jun, 2007 09:36 am
raprap wrote:
BTW this discussion rekindled a memory of a similar problem from my dimming past--a discussion of the equivalence of natural numbers and positive integers. If memory serves me well (& many times it doesn't) the sets aren't equivalent, mostly because one to one mapping function is not onto (natural number mapping onto positive integers isn't unique as |+/-a|=+a)


By natural numbers, I assume you mean all integers (hence the +/- remark). The non-uniqueness you describe would violate one-to-one, not onto. However, define F(n) as:

F(n) = -(n-1)/2, for all odd n
F(n) = n/2, for all even n

F is a one-to-one and onto function that maps the positive integers to all of the integers.
0 Replies
 
yitwail
 
  1  
Reply Fri 1 Jun, 2007 10:23 am
maporsche wrote:
Maybe I'm making it too simple.....but on a number line

Code:

0---1---2---3---4---5---...---Inf



It would seem that 5 is closer to infinity than 1 is. Another way to look at it would be is Infinity minus 5 less than Inifinity minus 1.


since nobody responded to this, i can. :wink:

the whole point of infinity is that you can't put it on a number line. otherwise, you could put a number to the right of it, like infinity + 1, which would be larger than infinity, but that contradicts the definition of infinity.
0 Replies
 
maporsche
 
  1  
Reply Fri 1 Jun, 2007 10:52 am
yitwail wrote:
maporsche wrote:
Maybe I'm making it too simple.....but on a number line

Code:

0---1---2---3---4---5---...---Inf



It would seem that 5 is closer to infinity than 1 is. Another way to look at it would be is Infinity minus 5 less than Inifinity minus 1.


since nobody responded to this, i can. :wink:

the whole point of infinity is that you can't put it on a number line. otherwise, you could put a number to the right of it, like infinity + 1, which would be larger than infinity, but that contradicts the definition of infinity.



It would make sense that nothing can be greater than infinity, but I don't understand why there are problems with something being varying degrees less than infinity. Inf - 1 vs Inf - 10,000 for example.
0 Replies
 
malek
 
  1  
Reply Fri 1 Jun, 2007 11:09 am
maporsche wrote:
yitwail wrote:
maporsche wrote:
Maybe I'm making it too simple.....but on a number line

Code:

0---1---2---3---4---5---...---Inf



It would seem that 5 is closer to infinity than 1 is. Another way to look at it would be is Infinity minus 5 less than Inifinity minus 1.


since nobody responded to this, i can. :wink:

the whole point of infinity is that you can't put it on a number line. otherwise, you could put a number to the right of it, like infinity + 1, which would be larger than infinity, but that contradicts the definition of infinity.



It would make sense that nothing can be greater than infinity, but I don't understand why there are problems with something being varying degrees less than infinity. Inf - 1 vs Inf - 10,000 for example.


That's the rub. You're giving an example that infinity is 10,000. That immediately implies that there are a finite amount of numbers. The word "infinity" means that there is no finite amount. The string of numbers will go on forever.
0 Replies
 
 

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