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Sun 25 Mar, 2007 05:33 pm
My friend reckons her half a pint of water that she measures in a jug to pour over her porridge is the same as the 10 oz of water that I weigh that goes on my porridge. But 10 fluid oz of water weighs more than 10 oz on the scale.
Firstly, are my scales up the spout and if not, why don't fluid oz equate to the same amount on the scales?
Hope I've not confused you even more than I've confused myself!
Is your friend American?
American weigh fluid ounces by volume, emperial measures by weight.
There are differences between U.S. and U.K. definiations for a "fluid Ounce" (1 Imperial Fluid Ounce = 0.9608 U.S. Fluid Ounce) but in this case you are looking at the differences between volume and avoirdupois weight.
There is no direct conversion rule between them because each substance has a different mass. (i.e. 10 fluid ounces of water would have a different avoirdupois weight than 10 fluid ounces of mercury)
Thanks for that. My friend's English.
It hadn't occurred to me that the avoirdupois weight would be the same as the volume in my jug but she was so sure she was right that it made me think (always dangerous!).
I'll tell her there's no direct conversion rule.
I reckon she'll change to cornflakes! :wink:
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