0
   

My house was.../I lived...: Same meaning?

 
 
Reply Mon 7 Sep, 2020 10:02 pm
A non-native English speaker wrote:

a) My house was near the park two years ago, but now it is near the station.

This is meant to be equivalent with:

b) I lived near the park two years ago, but now I live near the station.

My question is: Does a) sound natural?

To me, the sentence sounds like the house itself was transferred from one place to the other, rather than the speaker changed his living place, but I might be too strict on the interpretation of the sentence.
  • Topic Stats
  • Top Replies
  • Link to this Topic
Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 166 • Replies: 2
No top replies

 
CalamityJane
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Sep, 2020 10:07 pm
@sarumenokimi1976,
A) is not right and implies as you had said already that the house was moved.

I would write: Two years ago I lived near a park and now I live close to a bus/train station.
sarumenokimi1976
 
  1  
Reply Mon 7 Sep, 2020 10:17 pm
@CalamityJane,
Thank you very much for your quick reply.
The sentence you suggested sounds clear.
It really helps.
0 Replies
 
 

Related Topics

There is a word for that! - Discussion by wandeljw
Best Euphemism for death and dying.... - Discussion by tsarstepan
Let pupils abandon spelling rules, says academic - Discussion by Robert Gentel
Help me!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! - Question by lululucy
phrase/name of male seducer - Question by Zah03
Shameful sexist languge must be banned! - Question by neologist
Three Word Phrase I REALLY Hate to See - Discussion by hawkeye10
Is History an art or a science? - Question by Olivier5
"Rooms" in a cave - Question by shua
 
  1. Forums
  2. » My house was.../I lived...: Same meaning?
Copyright © 2020 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 10/01/2020 at 12:29:08