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Fri 4 Mar, 2005 10:32 am
Hi,
Is there anyone out there who can help me with this problem. I am getting a different answer every time I work it out. What is it I am doing wrong...
..........p
...........p-1
...............5
....
......--------
.....------.
....=
....-------
........p+5
........p+4
................42
I know how to find the denuminator but the answere is not comming up right.
Thank you very much in advance for helping me.
Two questions...
Is there a minus sign between the first and second fraction? I cant tell if I should subtract them, or multiply them (I am guessing subtraction).
Assuming subtraction, you need to get a common denominator. The easiest way to do this is to multiply the first fraction by (p+4) and the second by (p+5). This will give you a common denominator of (p+4)(p+5).
Then you can get rid of the denominator on the left side by multiplying both sides by the (p+4)(p+5).
If you tell us what you are doing, and what answer you are getting, we can tell you where you are going wrong.
Same problem
This is the same problem you posted a few days ago. There should be a minus sign between the two terms you posted.
Multiple both sides by the least common denominator 42(p+5)(p+4)
You now have 42p(p+4) - 42(p-1)(p+5) = 5(p+4)(p+5)
When you simplify all of that, you will notice that you can divide through by 5. The result is n^2+9n-22=0 which is what you are looking for.