Tue 16 Nov, 2004 04:18 pm
Right now, my probability professor is a joke. So when I asked the answer to this question he couldn't give me a proof for his answer, for which he wasn't sure about it in the first place.
The problem is:
Consider three binomial distributions B(10; 0,1), B(200; 0,1) and B(200; 0,5). Explain which of them can approximate better and which can approximate worst to a normal distribution.
I'm not understanding your syntax. Is it something like (10 choose 0)/( 2^1 ) (20 choose 0)/(2^1) (200 choose 0)/(2^1) or am i just confused.