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surnames - making them possessive

 
 
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 08:37 am
I asked this on another thread of mine but it didn't get much response so I'm gonna ask again.

This question is an extension of the straight As question.

If a family's name is Jones and there are four Jones(es), like there would be Bushes, Washingtons, and Carters, wouldn't it make sense for the possessive plural noun version of the name to be Joneses' and not Jones' or Jones's.
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 564 • Replies: 13
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layman
 
  0  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 09:50 am
@perennialloner,
perennialloner wrote:

I asked this on another thread of mine but it didn't get much response so I'm gonna ask again.

This question is an extension of the straight As question.

If a family's name is Jones and there are four Jones(es), like there would be Bushes, Washingtons, and Carters, wouldn't it make sense for the possessive plural noun version of the name to be Joneses' and not Jones' or Jones's.


Yeah, it would "make sense" to me, but I can't really tell you if that's the adopted convention.
dalehileman
 
  -1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 11:46 am
@layman,
'Gree w/Lay but dunno why
Probly 'cause he's usu right
layman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 11:57 am
@dalehileman,
I seldom bother with consulting authorities on issues of punctuation/grammar, etc. but here's an exeption:

Quote:
Things can get really confusing with the possessive plurals of proper names ending in s, such as Hastings and Jones....

The plural of Hastings is Hastingses. The members of the Jones family are the Joneses.

To show possession, add an apostrophe.

Incorrect: the Hastings' dog
Correct: the Hastingses' dog (Hastings + es + apostrophe)


http://www.grammarbook.com/punctuation/apostro.asp
0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 12:02 pm
That same site also addresses a question previously raised here, and shows that common spoken conventions can affect the formal written presentation:

Quote:
Another widely used technique is to write the word as we would speak it. For example, since most people saying "Mr. Hastings' pen" would not pronounce an added s, we would write Mr. Hastings' pen with no added s. But most people would pronounce an added s in "Jones's," so we'd write it as we say it: Mr. Jones's golf clubs. This method explains the punctuation of "for goodness' sake."
perennialloner
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 12:25 pm
@layman,
Thank you for the good source. And layman's about as right as you are most of the time, Dale. He just doesn't scream HELP so he seems more sure of himself.
0 Replies
 
camlok
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 01:15 pm
@layman,
Quote:
That same site also addresses a question previously raised here, and shows that common spoken conventions can affect the formal written presentation:


Of course, layman. Just ask yourself. What came first by many many centuries, spoken language or written language?

The written part of all languages is an artificial creation. Language, ie. the grammar of all languages always has been, and always will be created ONLY by the spoken language.

layman
 
  2  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 02:40 pm
@camlok,
camlok wrote:

Quote:
That same site also addresses a question previously raised here, and shows that common spoken conventions can affect the formal written presentation:


Of course, layman. Just ask yourself. What came first by many many centuries, spoken language or written language?

The written part of all languages is an artificial creation. Language, ie. the grammar of all languages always has been, and always will be created ONLY by the spoken language.


Sound like you're trying to say I'm right, but you're wrong. There are no "punctuation marks" in the spoken langage. They pertain solely to the written language.
perennialloner
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 03:12 pm
@layman,
They represent the pauses or intonations in the spoken language? So they kind of were created by the or at least because of the spoken language.
layman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 06:36 pm
@perennialloner,
Sure COMMA but that ainAPOSTROPHEt what he said COMMA eh QUESTION MARK
camlok
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 09:03 pm
@layman,
Quote:
Sound like you're trying to say I'm right, but you're wrong. There are no "punctuation marks" in the spoken langage. They pertain solely to the written language.


As P has pointed out to you, layman, the idea that the spoken language has no "punctuation marks" is a ludicrous idea. Had you thought a wee bit or asked Izzy or Setanta for some help you three language gurus would have figured it out.
camlok
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 09:05 pm
@layman,
The spoken language can even add a question mark to a statement, even an Imperative.
0 Replies
 
layman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 10:49 pm
@camlok,
Quote:

As P has pointed out to you, layman, the idea that the spoken language has no "punctuation marks" is a ludicrous idea. Had you thought a wee bit or asked Izzy or Setanta for some help you three language gurus would have figured it out.


Once again, Cammie, you make a convincing demonstration that you aint too quick on the uptake, eh?
camlok
 
  1  
Reply Mon 10 Apr, 2017 11:19 pm
@layman,
Once again, layman, you illustrate that you don't have the foggiest notion of which you speak.
0 Replies
 
 

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