imsak
 
Reply Mon 31 Oct, 2016 06:23 am
1.She has as much money as he does.
2.She has as much money as he has.

I am a bit confused by the two forms. Could someone please tell me which one is correct grammatically?
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Type: Question • Score: 2 • Views: 1,466 • Replies: 7
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dalehileman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Oct, 2016 03:56 pm
@imsak,
Imsak I don't like 2 'cause of the two "has"'s

Like both without either "does" or "has"
roger
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Oct, 2016 04:29 pm
I'm good with either example
dalehileman
 
  1  
Reply Mon 31 Oct, 2016 04:32 pm
@roger,
Quote:
either example
Rog, you're easier to satisfy. Me, I need the exotic import
0 Replies
 
imsak
 
  0  
Reply Mon 31 Oct, 2016 05:35 pm
@dalehileman,
Thank you very much.

According to you, does it mean that the sentence without 'has' or 'does' is grammatical the most?
oristarA
 
  -1  
Reply Mon 31 Oct, 2016 08:25 pm
Both are correct. And "She has as much money as he" is best.
Dale's taste for the latter is good, although he should have said the former.
imsak
 
  0  
Reply Tue 1 Nov, 2016 07:04 am
@oristarA,
Thank you very much.
0 Replies
 
dalehileman
 
  0  
Reply Tue 1 Nov, 2016 11:36 am
@imsak,
Quote:
is grammatical the most?
Naw Sak wouldn't say that but I for one find their presence jarring

I'm a fussbudget and compulsive

Thank you for your interest in my remarks
0 Replies
 
 

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