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question about "lexicalisation"

 
 
Nat093
 
Reply Tue 5 Apr, 2016 06:05 am
In one of the books, it is written that lexicalisation is a diachronic process, and as such it is difficult to apply to a synchronic analysis.

To make sure: It means that lexicalised words cannot be analysed from the synchronic point of view?
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Type: Question • Score: 2 • Views: 850 • Replies: 4
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Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Tue 5 Apr, 2016 06:13 am
It's not saying that it cannot be done, just that it would be difficult.
Nat093
 
  0  
Reply Tue 5 Apr, 2016 06:19 am
@Setanta,
Yes, you are right.
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fresco
 
  1  
Reply Tue 5 Apr, 2016 11:28 am
@Nat093,
IMO Not quite. 'Words' are available to the speaker as part of the historical (diachronic) evolution of the whole language, but the speaker may be using an idiolect which itself is in the process of (synchronically) altering the meaning/usage of those words or even inventing neologisms. (E.g. take the word 'wicked' which has come to mean 'good' in some contexts, and may even come to be the standard meaning.) So the question boils down where the cutoff point is taken along the time scale which separates diachronic from synchronic. Note that Shakespeare was a one man lexicon production machine over his lifetime !
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CVeigh
 
  1  
Reply Thu 11 Aug, 2016 12:43 pm
@Nat093,
It can be and usually is. Take the words 'will' and 'going' as markers of the future.
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