0
   

Convergence of Random Variables

Forums: Homework
Email this Topic • Print this Page
 
 
sacamantecas
 
Reply Mon 13 Oct, 2014 02:32 pm
Hello all. I have a two statements. One says

-1/T Sum X_t - a converges in probability to 0 as T approaches infinity (sum from t=1 to T)

The other:

-1/g(T) Sum X_t -a converges in probability to 0 as g(T) approaches infinity (sum from t=1 to g(T)) for g: N to N: g(T) approaches infinity as T approaches infinity.

Why are those two statements equivalent for random sequence X_t?
  • Topic Stats
  • Top Replies
  • Link to this Topic
Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 326 • Replies: 0
No top replies

 
 

Related Topics

present value calculation - Question by magikarppp
Bays Theorem - Question by klazman
Amount of Time - Question by Randy Dandy
What is the "unjust speech" and does Socrates use it? - Question by prpinrni
Stop multi-tasking. - Question by suzis114
What is the general formula for this math problem? - Question by Emarin
Difference between Transpiration and Respiration? - Question by nerdyspy
The movie Contagion questions. - Question by acacia410
The fall of communism - Question by jtee25
[ESSAY] Indian Partition of 1947 - Question by skiiful
State your opinion about the russian invasion of china. - Discussion by ohon
 
  1. Forums
  2. » Convergence of Random Variables
Copyright © 2025 MadLab, LLC :: Terms of Service :: Privacy Policy :: Page generated in 0.03 seconds on 02/06/2025 at 10:51:29
▲ ▼