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The Myth of a Palestinian People

 
 
Finn dAbuzz
 
  3  
Reply Wed 7 Mar, 2012 03:56 pm
@Setanta,
Yeah right.

Just can't admit you weren't aware of a pretty commonly known (among history buffs) appellation for Herodotus, and had to focus on an irrelevant passage in the bible as a display of your "prowess."
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 7 Mar, 2012 03:58 pm
@Finn dAbuzz,
Sure, Finn, whatever you say. What evidence do you have that Herodotus did not mention Palestine a half dozen times or more? Do you allege he just made it up because he wanted to sow strife more than two thousand years later? Even you can't be that incredibly stupid.
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 7 Mar, 2012 04:04 pm
Chew on this, clown:

Quote:
The first clear use of the term Palestine to refer to the entire area between Phoenicia and Egypt was in 5th century BC Ancient Greece. Herodotus wrote of a 'district of Syria, called PalaistinĂª" in The Histories, the first historical work clearly defining the region, which included the Judean mountains and the Jordan Rift Valley. Approximately a century later, Aristotle used a similar definition in Meteorology, writing "Again if, as is fabled, there is a lake in Palestine, such that if you bind a man or beast and throw it in it floats and does not sink, this would bear out what we have said. They say that this lake is so bitter and salt that no fish live in it and that if you soak clothes in it and shake them it cleans them," understood by scholars to be a reference to the Dead Sea. Later writers such as Polemon and Pausanias also used the term to refer to the same region. This usage was followed by Roman writers such as Ovid, Tibullus, Pomponius Mela, Pliny the Elder, Dio Chrysostom, Statius, Plutarch as well as Roman Judean writers Philo of Alexandria and Josephus. Other writers, such as Strabo, a prominent Roman-era geographer (although he wrote in Greek), referred to the region as Coele-Syria around 10-20 CE. The term was first used to denote an official province in c.135 CE, when the Roman authorities, following the suppression of the Bar Kokhba Revolt, combined Iudaea Province with Galilee and other surrounding cities such as Ashkelon to form "Syria Palaestina" (Syria Palaestina), which some scholars state was in order to complete the dissociation with Judaea.


Source
0 Replies
 
Finn dAbuzz
 
  1  
Reply Wed 7 Mar, 2012 05:00 pm
@Setanta,
No doubt he mentioned Palestinians as well as he mentioned Atlanteans and the Phoenix.
Setanta
 
  3  
Reply Wed 7 Mar, 2012 07:27 pm
@Finn dAbuzz,
Didn't read the last post, did you? You've never read Herodotus, have you? You are a wonderful example of invincible ignorance. Herodotus simply reported that people had told him about the fantastic things which appear in his book, he did not assert that they were real. He does assert that Palestine was real, and that he had been there.
0 Replies
 
incognitoman
 
  1  
Reply Fri 8 Mar, 2013 07:11 am
The Filistinians are recorded in the O.T. as one of the locals. They nearly wiped the jews off the map until David (peace be upon him) slayed Goliath the Filisteen champion. As a result they paid tribute to David & then Sulaiman (peace be upon them both). But they continued to reside in Filisteen (Palestine) as a nation. And have done so until today.
nydia2013
 
  1  
Reply Sun 10 Mar, 2013 09:13 am
@incognitoman,
sounds logical to me.
0 Replies
 
JoeBruno
 
  0  
Reply Fri 9 Aug, 2013 02:27 am
@msolga,
I don't cook.I've been studying Russian. I know nothing about Europe.

The solution to your boredom is simple-don't read my posts.

I don't intend to reform my entire personality to entertain you.
0 Replies
 
 

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