SOLVE THIS MATHEMATICAL JOKE

Take the log base N of both sides and you get

(N-1)/(N-2) = (N-1) log (N-2) which simplifies to
1 = (N-2) log (N-2)

Raising N to the power of both sides, you get

N = (N-2) ^ (N-2)

N = 4 by inspection.

Q: Since you use a "by inspection" method, would not taking "the lowest non prime number" (i.e. 4), and testing it in the original equation, be equally valid as a method ? (Hence the "joke" ?).

Hmm. So the answer is "4"? That's a thigh-slapper.

To check the answer, you could call the Math Joke Hotline at 1-800-[(10x)(13i)2]-[sin(xy)/2.362x].

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Q: What do you get if you divide the circumference of a jack-o-lantern by its diameter?
A: Pumpkin Pi.

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What did the Zero say to the Eight?
"Nice belt."

Sure. I transformed it to get rid of those fractional roots that make inspection difficult, but you don't have to.

why was 6 afraid of 7? because 7 8 9

Oo I love a good maths joke.
Happy New Year.

4. Muchly amusement. Thigh slappingly noetic happy new year all.

Actually the answer is 1.

1^(0/-1) = 1
(-1)^0 = 1
1 is not prime.

Yup! there are always good side of the box. Math is cool!