I don't want to start another thread, so I'll use this one:
I'd be interested to see who thinks Chaucer intentionally ended House of Fame as he did--quite abruptly--or who thinks they have a compelling case that points to some unintentional ending.
We discussed this in class and the instructor (unless she's baiting us) disagrees with me (
).
I can't concieve of the other opinion. Really.