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Reply Sat 9 Jul, 2005 08:18 am
I have a question to ask you and I want to show you what have done so I am on the right track. Can you please let me know if i'm doing the right thing?

Tom and Kate are in the final stages of purchasing an all inclusive honeymoon package to Mauritius. Hollywood Travel, the couple's travel broker, has quoted them a final price of $5,000. Due to their current financial situation, Tom is planning on financing their trip. Hollywood Travel has laid out two options for the couple to choose from. The first option has the couple paying 25% interest per year compounded quarterly, with equal payments every 3 months for 2 years. The second option has Tom and Kate paying 26% interest per year compounded monthly, with equal semi-annual payments for 4 years.
a) If Tom and Kate choose the first option by putting a down payment of $1000 on the purchase of the trip, what would be their equal quarterly payments?
b) If the couple choose to finance the entire vacation value, which option will be more beneficial for Tom and Kate?
c) Hollywood Travel is planning on having a one-day extravaganza next month where all honeymoon travel packages will be financed at 0% interest. If Tom and Kate decide to hold off on their honeymoon plans and take advantage of the sale, how much would Hollywood Travel need to charge for their Mauritius trip during the zero-interest sale in order to earn the usual combined return on the sale and the financing?

option 1:
a) EAR (effective annual rate] = [1 + quoted rate /m]^ m - 1 where m is number of times compounded
EAR = [1 + 0.25/4]^4 - 1
= 0.27443

down payment of 1000 = 5000 - 1000 = 4000
Present value annuity is:
PV = C x [1 -1/(1 + r)^t ]/r
where c is payments
4000 = C x [1 - 1/(1.27443)^2]/0.27443
C = 2856.40835 (payment per year)
divide by 4 for quarterly payments = 714.10209

option 2:
EAR = [1 + quoted r/m]^m - 1
[1 + 0.26/12]^12 - 1
=0.293333
4000 = C x [1 - 1/(1.29333)^4]/0.29333
C = 1825.92540 (payment per year)
-------------------------------------------------
b)option 1:

5000 = C * [1 - 1/(1.27443)^2]/0.27443
= 3570.51044 payment per year

Option 2:
5000 = C x [1 - 1/(1.29333)^4]/0.29333
=2282.40675 payment per year

option 2 more beneficial because cheaper
-------------------------------------------------
c) i'm not sure hwo you do c. Can you show me how? can you check if teh above answers are correct? thanks so much!

the cost of the trip is 5000 + present value of my future interest payments
PVA = 5000 x [1 - 1/(1 + r)^t]/r
rates for two =0.293333 + 0.27443 from the EAR from part a, b, = .56776

using first rate:
5000 x [1 - 1/(1.29333) ^4]/.29333
= 10953.36311 as my final answer.
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