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Tue 7 Jan, 2020 07:54 pm
Why are Proto-Slavic *pęstь and Proto-Germanic *funstiz cognate?
I know that Proto-Slavic *p and Proto-Germanic *f are cognate by Grimm's law.
I know that Proto-Slavic *t may be cognate to Proto-Germanic *þ by Grimm's law.
I know that Proto-Slavic *t may be cognate to Proto-Germanic *d by Verner's law.
But in the above example we have Proto-Slavic *t and Proto-Germanic *t.