It isn't clear for or to me

clear to me

What is the difference between the two sentences?

We say both. "Clear to me" is probably more common, but "clear for me" is also used.

Thank you so much centrox

Always keep in mind that there is a fairly big difference between the English used in Britain and that used in the rest of the world.

That might suggest that British English is only spoken by a small number of people, in one country, and everybody else speaks one other different version. Not so. It is just as correct to say "There is a fairly big difference between the English used in America and that used in the rest of the world."

Anyhow, in both variants of English, "clear to me" is overwhelmingly the majority usage. "Clear for me", although not incorrect, is used very much less often.

pretty much my perspective - I'm not in the US or Britain.

BrE is useful and understood in one part of the world.

The rest of us (whether we want to or not) have to be able to function well in our own dialect/s as well as American English.

The AmE/BrE split is about 65%/35% worldwide. But you are barking up the wrong tree if you think the the "clear for" vs "clear to" thing is a British/American thing. It isn't. It is, in either variant, a matter of frequency. The 'to' version is dominant, and the 'for' usage is minority in both.