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still 'mixed economy'?

 
 
firepig
 
Reply Tue 25 May, 2004 06:34 am
Hi everybody~~ I am a foreigner studying in Britain. In last lecture

the Doctor said that Britain used to be described as a 'mixed economy'

I am wondering this would be a valid statement today ?

Who could give me some advise ? Thanks ~~~
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 1,147 • Replies: 4
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gustavratzenhofer
 
  1  
Reply Tue 25 May, 2004 06:37 am
I can't offer you any help, but I sure as hell love your name.
0 Replies
 
firepig
 
  1  
Reply Thu 27 May, 2004 06:09 pm
Before my exams i often drink Red Bull, it seems i have drunk too much and i need to change my name to Red Pig !~~~
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nexz
 
  1  
Reply Sat 29 May, 2004 10:33 am
'Mixed economy' might mean several things I guess, economy where services, manufacturing and agriculture play a similar role in the overall GDP. Today UK economy is more oriented to services, not much is manufatured locally, share of agriculture in the economy only around 10 % if that. As for services City of London is responsible for around 15% of the country's GDP.
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DKay
 
  1  
Reply Tue 7 Sep, 2004 05:19 pm
A mixed economy refers to a mix between a free market economy and a planned or command economy. The basic distinction of the 2 is a free market is one which consists of purely buyers and sellers with no government intervention. A command economy is the opposite. It is the left wing communist economy where the government has complete control over market mechanisms.

Britian is of course a mixed economy as most economically developed countries are. However what I think your lecturer is getting at is since the imposition of the labour party we have seen increased economic control being transferred back to the government from the times of conservative rule under Maggie Thatcher - who is said to have kicked off the privatisation movement. Trade union reform (giving them less negotiation power) was a signiture of Thatcher on this economy, however as you may be aware recent trade union strikes have hit British Airways, the Post office and other now privatised firms. Recent legislation has become more tolerant for trade unions.

Perhaps you would let me take this opportunity to say that trade union intervention is a tricky subject but a possible explanation for encouraging it without inducing unemployment is under the monopsonistic buyer case where a single buyer is responsible for the employment of the labour force - such as the case for police in the UK, to become a policeman you can only be employed by the government. This works under the assumptions of marginal wage increases in line with each new additional worker into the market, where a new worker is inticed by having a higher pay than other professions.

It is a possible reason therefore why labour may be turning a somewhat blind eye to trade union intervention, however I stress this may not be the actual case why they have as I am not an expert in politics! Your lecturer seems to be saying the correct information to you there's nothing to worry about! I would be interested to talk to you and find out about the course you are on, PM me!
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