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A question for people who believe in Moral Absolutes

 
 
MattDavis
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 12:45 am
As to the OP:

I certainly hope that if I had absolute knowledge of the absolute morality, I would change my behavior accordingly. I think very few people believe that they are behaving immorally. We have a great need to think highly of ourselves, we can do this in one of two ways (often we do both) change our behavior to suit our concept of morality, or change our concept of morality to suit our behavior.
Looking at myself "objectively" I hope that I would only change the behavior and not the conception. (In the case that I know that the conception is truly the absolute morality).
The difficulty with this hypothetical is that it requires absolute knowledge, and absolute morality, to "get off the ground".
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 02:38 am
@joefromchicago,
Well, whatever you allege Bentham said or would have said, Thomas acknowledges that utilitarians would have different responses. This suggests that utilitarianism does not apply a universal standard. That would mean that the utilitarian "morality," like all other moralities, is subjective, not objective, and certainly not absolute.
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 02:39 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
Why couldn't gods be just as wrong about absolute morality as everybody else?


Hehehehehehehe , , ,
0 Replies
 
maxdancona
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 06:49 am
@Thomas,
It seems simple enough to me. The person who makes the Universe gets to set the rules. The idea of an immoral God is intriguing.

But I think that if there is a God, He is moral by definition.
0 Replies
 
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 06:52 am
@Berty McJock,
Berty McJock wrote:
i don't know. i think morality can still exist, but only as a human perception of how a functional society should operate. if we see 2 humans fighting, most "decent" people would see that as "wrong". when we view it in "nature" it's seen as territorial, part of "the pecking order", or sexual (i.e. over a mate). this can also apply to theft and vandalism, as 2 examples off the top of my head.

Then you're talking about social mores, not morality.

Berty McJock wrote:
yeah, that's kind of what i'm saying...but they were wrong from the viewpoint of society today. there are still (admittedly very few) primitive tribes out there who even 100 years ago we would have regarded as "savages", but to them in their society they are not morally wrong in things we percieve them to be.

So what?
Berty McJock wrote:
someone has to witness, or be affected by an event for morals to even enter the equation. the questionability of good vs. bad makes it subjective surely.
to be honest, i hate subjective/objective arguements, mainly because i'm no good at them, but also because, as i even used in this reply, if you can question somethings value, or even existence it becomes subjective. it's about your perception of it. therefore everything is subjective, including objectivity.

i think Razz

That doesn't follow. For instance, if I question whether 2+2=4 or 2+2=5, does that mean that mathematics is subjective? (I know, I know: "but mathematics is different!") It's true that everybody has a different subjective opinion, but if you think that everybody's opinion is correct then you've already decided that there's no such thing as morality.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 07:02 am
@maxdancona,
maxdancona wrote:
There is a really big difference between science and social construct.

I agree. So why are you applying scientific standards of evidence to something that you consider a social construct?

maxdancona wrote:
An absolute morality makes no sense from a scientific point of view.

So what? There are a lot of things that don't make sense from a scientific point of view. But then not everything is scientific, is it?

maxdancona wrote:
1. The fact is that your moral views are very similar to the views of the society and time that you were brought up in, and very different from the views of other societies and other times.

Well, just on an empirical basis, I disagree. There's actually far more continuity than discontinuity in ethics. We can, for instance, still find far more in Aristotle's ethics that we agree with than disagree with. But again, so what if there is change over time or among societies? That might just mean we're getting smarter. It's the same in science. Just because people used to believe in phlogiston doesn't mean that combustion is subjective.

maxdancona wrote:
2. There is nothing outside of human society that gives any evidence for a system of morality. Moral rules only apply within human society, and are vastly different from human society to society.

I don't see too many dog scientists either. Does that mean there's no such thing as science?
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 07:05 am
@Setanta,
Setanta wrote:

Well, whatever you allege Bentham said or would have said, Thomas acknowledges that utilitarians would have different responses. This suggests that utilitarianism does not apply a universal standard. That would mean that the utilitarian "morality," like all other moralities, is subjective, not objective, and certainly not absolute.

It means no such thing. If different people have different opinions, that doesn't mean everybody's opinion is right. And that applies to utilitarians too.
Frank Apisa
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 07:05 am
@MattDavis,
Quote:
I certainly hope that if I had absolute knowledge of the absolute morality, I would change my behavior accordingly. I think very few people believe that they are behaving immorally. We have a great need to think highly of ourselves, we can do this in one of two ways (often we do both) change our behavior to suit our concept of morality, or change our concept of morality to suit our behavior.
Looking at myself "objectively" I hope that I would only change the behavior and not the conception. (In the case that I know that the conception is truly the absolute morality).


I wonder!

I've certainly changed my "concept" of morality from time to time...and I do not feel the lesser for it. In fact, I accept that a perfectly fine concept at one time simply was wrong.

At various times in my life I was "morally" opposed to capital punishment, abortion, eating mean on Friday(!)...and such.

I've changed.

Just got up and read your comment...so I have not thought this out carefully, but I thought I would post it and see if my thinking changes as the day passes.
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 07:33 am
@joefromchicago,
Uh-huh . . . and who determines what is right, and how is that determined? It doesn't matter who's "right," if that can't be determined. In that case, all morality is functionally subjective, which is the point i've been getting at all along.
maxdancona
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 07:39 am
@joefromchicago,
Joe,

1. You brought the idea of scientific truth vs. moral truth into the discussion when you compared a moral truth to a fact like the Earth orbiting the Sun. I am just pointing out that scientific fact is objectively testable and there are no objective tests for morality.

2. Aristotle is not a good example. Aristotle is part of our cultural heritage. There are similarities because our culture has been aware of Aristotle since Aristotle was alive. Pick a contemporary Asian, or African philosopher and you won't find the same similarities. There was cannibalism practiced at the time... something that isn't part of our current system of morality.

3. Dogs do follow the laws of science as understood by humans.

Science laws, as understood by humans, give facts in an objectively testable way about how dogs are conceived, how fast they accelerate when dropped a long distance, how they age, how their senses work, what makes them sick, how genetics affect size and skin color... and on and on. There is comparison to any "moral truth".

There is a big difference between the objectively testable facts of science, and the untestable so-called "absolute truths" of a moral system.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 09:04 am
@Setanta,
Setanta wrote:

Uh-huh . . . and who determines what is right, and how is that determined? It doesn't matter who's "right," if that can't be determined. In that case, all morality is functionally subjective, which is the point i've been getting at all along.

The "functionality" of ethics is largely irrelevant to the existence of ethics, unless you happen to believe that the only kind of ethics are those that are functional (in the sense that they must command universal agreement). If that's the case, then you don't really believe in ethics at all -- which is, I believe, your position. It then becomes purely a definitional issue for you: you define morality as something that can't exist, and then you proceed to "prove" that morality can't exist. That's a petitio principii.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 09:15 am
@maxdancona,
maxdancona wrote:

Joe,

1. You brought the idea of scientific truth vs. moral truth into the discussion when you compared a moral truth to a fact like the Earth orbiting the Sun. I am just pointing out that scientific fact is objectively testable and there are no objective tests for morality.

I mentioned the earth's position in the solar system as an example of a disagreement that didn't involve both sides being right. The fact that it was a scientific dispute was completely immaterial.

maxdancona wrote:
2. Aristotle is not a good example. Aristotle is part of our cultural heritage. There are similarities because our culture has been aware of Aristotle since Aristotle was alive. Pick a contemporary Asian, or African philosopher and you won't find the same similarities. There was cannibalism practiced at the time... something that isn't part of our current system of morality.

You're the one who said that our morality might be different from our forebears. In any event, I still disagree that morality differs across cultural boundaries as much as you seem to think. But then such empirical differences have little relevance, unless you believe that morality can be determined empirically. If that's the case, you're not talking about morality any more, you're talking about mores.

maxdancona wrote:
3. Dogs do follow the laws of science as understood by humans.

Depends on how you define "follow."

maxdancona wrote:
Science laws, as understood by humans, give facts in an objectively testable way about how dogs are conceived, how fast they accelerate when dropped a long distance, how they age, how their senses work, what makes them sick, how genetics affect size and skin color... and on and on. There is comparison to any "moral truth".

I'll freely concede that dogs are physical entities. That doesn't mean that dogs can be physicists. You seem to think that, because animals don't follow morality, that people somehow don't follow morality either. But that's based upon an equivocation -- you're using "follow" in different senses here.

A better example would be with the law. You'd agree that not everybody follows the law (in the sense that they do not adhere to the law's dictates). Does that mean that there's no such thing as law?

maxdancona wrote:
There is a big difference between the objectively testable facts of science, and the untestable so-called "absolute truths" of a moral system.

Once again, I agree. So why do you insist upon holding morality to the standards of science?
igm
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 09:26 am
0 Replies
 
JLNobody
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 09:35 am
What a mess our dualism makes for us. The subjectivity of idealists appears so absurd to the objectivists and the absolutism of the latter appears equally absurd to the relativist-subjectivists. I'd rather look absurd to both sides by acknowledging as an objective fact that everything is subjective (including the notion of objectivity).
Frank Apisa
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 09:37 am
@JLNobody,
Quote:
What a mess our dualism makes for us. The subjectivity of idealists appears so absurd to the objectivists and the absolutism of the latter appears equally absurd to the relativist-subjectivists. I'd rather look absurd to both sides by acknowledging as an objective fact that everything is subjective (including the notion of objectivity).


But if you are correct there, JL (and of course, you do not really know if you are or not)....but if you are correct...

...that would be the objective truth.

Jeez. Does this never end?
maxdancona
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 09:45 am
@joefromchicago,
Quote:

A better example would be with the law. You'd agree that not everybody follows the law (in the sense that they do not adhere to the law's dictates). Does that mean that there's no such thing as law?


Nope.

1) The law is based on society, each society is has its own.

2) The law is well defined and objective. The law is defined by what is written, and anyone can go read it.

3) There is no Universal law (outside of the scientific ones which we have already discussed.

4) Many of us would break the law in cases it contradicted our personal morality.

The "law" (i.e. human social laws) are not a good example for any purported absolute morality.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 10:44 am
@maxdancona,
maxdancona wrote:
The "law" (i.e. human social laws) are not a good example for any purported absolute morality.

I didn't say it was.

I used the law as an example to explain that, just because people don't universally follow something, that doesn't mean that that something doesn't exist. You, on the other hand, appear to believe that, just because people don't universally follow a moral code, that must mean that morality doesn't exist. I think you're wrong, and that's why I used the example of the law as part of an argument by analogy.

Of course, there are many differences between a legal code and a moral code -- I can cite more than the ones you listed. But then if they were the same things, it wouldn't be an analogy, now would it?
Setanta
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 11:08 am
@joefromchicago,
You're playing word games again, which is no surprise. I haven't "defined" morality as something which cannot exist. I have looked at the definition of morality, and come to the conclusion that is does not exist as an absolute, objective standard.
Ethics is defined
as a system of moral principles, of an individual or a culture. I have no problem with that definition. I have a problem with the contention, always unsubstantiated, that morality can be objective and absolute. You have offered no plausible argument that it is.
joefromchicago
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 11:11 am
@Thomas,
Thomas wrote:
On reflection, I actually don't see how that follows. Why couldn't gods be just as wrong about absolute morality as everybody else?

I think the "god who is always moral" model is a Judeo-Christian construct. The gods of Greek and Norse mythology, for instance, often acted immorally, and it was widely recognized that they acted immorally. They were gods not because they were always moral, but because they suffered little or no consequences when they weren't.
Berty McJock
 
  1  
Reply Wed 27 Feb, 2013 11:15 am
@joefromchicago,
aahhhh arguement for agruements sake...classic strategy.

Quote:
Then you're talking about social mores, not morality.


social mores are derived from morality. i.e. our social values are derived directly from our sense of right or wrong, individually and collectively. so in essence, we are both talking about both.

Quote:
So what?


wow that's quite weak...you could ask "so what?" of almost anything. try to flesh out your arguements...it helps to make you sound like you're older than 5.
SO...even amongst differing yet contemporary societies, moral values differ.

Quote:
It's true that everybody has a different subjective opinion, but if you think that everybody's opinion is correct then you've already decided that there's no such thing as morality.


if you actually read what i posted you would notice i was trying to avoid the whole subjective/objective arguement.

i also never made ANY mention of people thinking their opinions are correct. please don't try to ascribe things i never mentioned or made reference to, to me. all i said i was i didn't like the arguement. i gave reasons, one of which was my own admission to being crap at them...the other because i feel everything can be described as being subjective if you argue hard enough over it. that's my opinion...rightly or wrongly...and as i said originally, NOT an arguement i'm prepared to enter.
 

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