Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone has documentation that shows that a phrase stating a certain number of days, as well as a certain number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely didn’t include at least parts of the specified number of days and at least parts of the specified number of nights?
Well, we know according to the creation that first there was darkness, and light came from that darkness and that was the first day.
The Jewish day began at sunset and their 24 hour day consisted of 12 hours of Darkness followed by 12 hours of Light, and we know also that Jesus was buried late in the afternoon of the day of preparation to the Passover, and that was the evening of Thursday, which was the beginning of the 15th day of Nisan, the first of the seven day festival of Unleavened Bread and a Most Holy Sabbath on which no work could be done. And the women who had followed Jesus, were unable to go out and buy the hundreds of kilo's of Herbs needed for his tomb that day.
Jesus remained in the tomb all Thursday night and Thursday, Friday night and the following Friday, when the women were able to go out and purchase the Herbs and spices that they needed, and to prepare them for the tomb, which would have taken them most of Friday, and as Saturday night was approaching, they were forced to rest, until Sunday morning the day after the weekly Sabbath, only to find the tome empty.
Jesus had remained in that tomb, Thursday night and Thursday, one night and one day. Friday night, (night 2) and Friday, (day 2,) Saturday night, (night 3) and all day Saturday, (day three,) then early in the evening of Sunday, Jjesus left the tomb, and when the women arrived in the darkness of the last hour of Sunday night, before the sun had risen, they found the tomb empty.