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What does John 1:1-3 tell us.

 
 
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 07:47 am
The Word = Jesus


In the beginning was the Word (Jesus), and the Word (Jesus) was with God, and the Word (Jesus) was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made.


This passage tells us:

1) Jesus was there in the beginning
2) Jesus was with God
3) Jesus was God
4) Jesus created all things



A belief that Jesus is not God totally contradicts the Bible.
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Type: Discussion • Score: 1 • Views: 891 • Replies: 16
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rugonnacry
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 08:58 am
@JesusDiedForU,
There are other books in the bible less easily pointed out as hogwash... Dont use JOHN anymore.

John was written 150 years AFTER jesus died. and it was an entire 25 years after THAT that there was a rewrite INCLUDING the resurrection (Thats right the ORIGINAL never mentioned a resurrection) He must have just let it slip his mind.
markx15
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 09:17 am
@JesusDiedForU,
Excuse me, but does it actually state the name Jesus in any of these passages?
wvpeach
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 09:44 am
@rugonnacry,
Well lets take the entire chapter and look at it all.


[SIZE="4"]John 1:14 [/SIZE]

[SIZE="3"]The Word became flesh and lived for awhile among us. We have seen his glory , the glory of the one and the only Son. Who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.[/SIZE]
[SIZE="3"] Verse 18: No man hath seen God at any time: The only begotten Son , which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. [/SIZE]


Lets look at what this scripture says , it says no man has seen God at any time. This is actually said a few times in the bible . That no man has seen God at any time. Now obviously many people saw Jesus so how can what this scripture says be true?

If no man has seen God at any time .

Yet hundreds of thousands saw Jesus during his life and after his resurrection.

[SIZE="4"]Why would John 1:18 say that no man has seen God at any time? [/SIZE]

[SIZE="3"]I'd like to hear ( jesusdiedforU's) answer before we go any further. [/SIZE] He's bad about not answering any questions , so lets have a answer to this one before we waste a bunch of time and then all we get is mankinds dogma instead of truth from (diedforU)
wvpeach
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 09:45 am
@markx15,
No it doesn't Markx .

Good catch.




markx15;39810 wrote:
Excuse me, but does it actually state the name Jesus in any of these passages?
0 Replies
 
JesusDiedForU
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 08:02 pm
@markx15,
markx15;39810 wrote:
Excuse me, but does it actually state the name Jesus in any of these passages?


a) "The Word" is another name for Jesus
b) The name "Jesus" is not found in the OT, yet through hundreds of discriptions of Christ we know that the OT writers were prophesying about Jesus.
c) Yes, the name Jesus can be found in John 1
0 Replies
 
JesusDiedForU
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 08:05 pm
@wvpeach,
wvpeach;39812 wrote:
Well lets take the entire chapter and look at it all.


[SIZE="4"]John 1:14 [/SIZE]

[SIZE="3"]The Word became flesh and lived for awhile among us. We have seen his glory , the glory of the one and the only Son. Who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.[/SIZE]
[SIZE="3"] Verse 18: No man hath seen God at any time: The only begotten Son , which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. [/SIZE]


Lets look at what this scripture says , it says no man has seen God at any time. This is actually said a few times in the bible . That no man has seen God at any time. Now obviously many people saw Jesus so how can what this scripture says be true?

If no man has seen God at any time .

Yet hundreds of thousands saw Jesus during his life and after his resurrection.

[SIZE="4"]Why would John 1:18 say that no man has seen God at any time? [/SIZE]

[SIZE="3"]I'd like to hear ( jesusdiedforU's) answer before we go any further. [/SIZE] He's bad about not answering any questions , so lets have a answer to this one before we waste a bunch of time and then all we get is mankinds dogma instead of truth from (diedforU)



He is refering to God the Father.


There is ONE God with THREE sections - The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

No one has seen the Father.
wvpeach
 
  1  
Reply Sun 30 Sep, 2007 08:17 pm
@JesusDiedForU,
Three " sections " Really? Where in the bible are we told there are three " sections to God?

So if nobody has seen the Father but we have seen the son then at least you admit they are different entities?

Is that correct?


JesusDiedForU;39886 wrote:
He is refering to God the Father.


There is ONE God with THREE sections - The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

No one has seen the Father.
Campbell34
 
  1  
Reply Mon 1 Oct, 2007 11:48 pm
@wvpeach,
wvpeach;39888 wrote:
Three " sections " Really? Where in the bible are we told there are three " sections to God?

So if nobody has seen the Father but we have seen the son then at least you admit they are different entities?

Is that correct?


Yes, it requires three entities to = One God.
0 Replies
 
mlurp
 
  1  
Reply Tue 2 Oct, 2007 12:33 am
@JesusDiedForU,
I am for that. How can on enot see the truth?

JesusDiedForU;39796 wrote:
The Word = Jesus


In the beginning was the Word (Jesus), and the Word (Jesus) was with God, and the Word (Jesus) was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through him all things were made.


This passage tells us:

1) Jesus was there in the beginning
2) Jesus was with God
3) Jesus was God
4) Jesus created all things



A belief that Jesus is not God totally contradicts the Bible.
0 Replies
 
mlurp
 
  1  
Reply Tue 2 Oct, 2007 12:35 am
@wvpeach,
wvpeach;39888 wrote:
Three " sections " Really? Where in the bible are we told there are three " sections to God?

So if nobody has seen the Father but we have seen the son then at least you admit they are different entities?

Is that correct?



Now your right too. But it is because of the Trinty. God,s, greatness to know all and be all.
0 Replies
 
mlurp
 
  1  
Reply Tue 2 Oct, 2007 12:40 am
@JesusDiedForU,
JesusDiedForU;39886 wrote:
He is refering to God the Father.

Re: What does John 1:1-3 tell us.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Quote:
Originally stated by wvpeach
Well lets take the entire chapter and look at it all.


John 1:14

The Word became flesh and lived for awhile among us. We have seen his glory , the glory of the one and the only Son. Who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Verse 18: No man hath seen God at any time: The only begotten Son , which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.


Lets look at what this scripture says , it says no man has seen God at any time. This is actually said a few times in the bible . That no man has seen God at any time. Now obviously many people saw Jesus so how can what this scripture says be true?

If no man has seen God at any time .

Yet hundreds of thousands saw Jesus during his life and after his resurrection.

Why would John 1:18 say that no man has seen God at any time?

I'd like to hear ( jesusdiedforU's) answer before we go any further. He's bad about not answering any questions , so lets have a answer to this one before we waste a bunch of time and then all we get is mankinds dogma instead of truth from (diedforU)



There is ONE God with THREE sections - The Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.................................... I AGREE, mlurp!

No one has seen the Father.
................................................................................... I disagree, mlurp


Come on we believe Moses saw and talked with God. Others had encounters with the one true God. No Mohammad isn't one. Your debating a point. neither of these two are wrong. So why if your a believer do you attack wvpeach?
Try me. Lets see who knows more. Isn't that the thing your going for, Pride. Well I share His, word for His, glory. Take me on!
You will find we agree on more than disagree so it won't solve a thing if you use long winded tirades. One doesn't share God's word by cramming it down others throats.
Campbell34
 
  1  
Reply Tue 2 Oct, 2007 01:55 am
@mlurp,
mlurp;40042 wrote:
................................................................................... I disagree, mlurp


Come on we believe Moses saw and talked with God. Others had encounters with the one true God. No Mohammad isn't one. Your debating a point. neither of these two are wrong. So why if your a believer do you attack wvpeach?
Try me. Lets see who knows more. Isn't that the thing your going for, Pride. Well I share His, word for His, glory. Take me on!
You will find we agree on more than disagree so it won't solve a thing if you use long winded tirades. One doesn't share God's word by cramming it down others throats.


Moses spoke to the burning bush, yet that was not God. Jesus was God in the flesh, yet God is a Spirit which no one has seen. The point that is trying to be established here, is that God exist eternally as One God that is made up of three beings. It's pretty obvious by the statements that both Jehovah and Jesus have done all things together. Because of this, it is impossible to claim that they are seperated beings, unless you believe they are seperated beings that still = One God. WVpeach believes that the Father manufactured Jesus, and that Jesus created all things. Yet Jehovah said He made all things alone and by HIMSELF. WVPeach cannot agree with Jehovah's statement, because her belief system states that it was Jesus that made all things. Well, unless you have a proper understanding of the make up of God, you will never be able to agree, or confirm numerous statements made by Jehovah. You will for ever be left with countless counterdictions that cannot be explained. As I have stated before, there is really only one group that pushes this, and that is the JWs. Now in their Bible they had to change many verses, and remove others to get their Bible to read correctly. They changed their Bible to agree with their doctrine, when it should of been the other way around. Now WVPeach has stated that she has distanced herself from this group, yet much of what she believes, still appears to agree with the JW's, and their rewritten Bible. What we are trying to do is point out the obvious, yet if you have been involved in such a cult, it is sometimes very hard to break away from their false teachings.
SWORD of GOD
 
  1  
Reply Tue 2 Oct, 2007 06:32 am
@Campbell34,
In the beginning was the WORD and the WORD was with GOD and the WORD was GOD (John 1:1).

Should we rephrase this to suit trinitarians who teach that the WORD is the second person of the trinity who was with God the Father, the first person of the trinity, here is what we would get by changing the word God to Father like they want:

In the beginning was the WORD and the WORD was with the FATHER and the WORD was the FATHER!

Wow! ...now, how can they deny what they make the verse to say? By this change in their own language, the Word and the Father are the same God exactly what we are teaching here.
0 Replies
 
rugonnacry
 
  1  
Reply Tue 2 Oct, 2007 03:07 pm
@JesusDiedForU,
No responses to the irony of no mention of resurrection until 25 years after the book of john was first written.....
Campbell34
 
  1  
Reply Wed 3 Oct, 2007 03:07 am
@rugonnacry,
rugonnacry;40153 wrote:
No responses to the irony of no mention of resurrection until 25 years after the book of john was first written.....


The Book of John is believed to of been written around 90 A.D. and the resurrection is mentioned in other Books of the Bible which were finished before the Book of John. And the first mention of resurrection, will be found in the Old Testament.
0 Replies
 
Brian764
 
  1  
Reply Sun 14 Oct, 2007 12:41 am
@rugonnacry,
rugonnacry;39805 wrote:
There are other books in the bible less easily pointed out as hogwash... Dont use JOHN anymore.

John was written 150 years AFTER jesus died. and it was an entire 25 years after THAT that there was a rewrite INCLUDING the resurrection (Thats right the ORIGINAL never mentioned a resurrection) He must have just let it slip his mind.
0 Replies
 
 

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