@rugonnacry,
Well lets take the entire chapter and look at it all.
[SIZE="4"]John 1:14 [/SIZE]
[SIZE="3"]
The Word became flesh and lived for awhile among us. We have seen his glory , the glory of the one and the only Son. Who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.[/SIZE]
[SIZE="3"] Verse 18:
No man hath seen God at any time: The only begotten Son , which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. [/SIZE]
Lets look at what this scripture says , it says
no man has seen God at any time. This is actually said a few times in the bible . That no man has seen God at any time. Now obviously many people saw Jesus so how can what this scripture says be true?
If no man has seen God at any time .
Yet hundreds of thousands saw Jesus during his life and after his resurrection.
[SIZE="4"]Why would John 1:18 say that no man has seen God at any time? [/SIZE]
[SIZE="3"]
I'd like to hear ( jesusdiedforU's) answer before we go any further. [/SIZE] He's bad about not answering any questions , so lets have a answer to this one before we waste a bunch of time and then all we get is mankinds dogma instead of truth from (diedforU)