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Dizzturbed

 
 
Reply Sun 18 Jan, 2009 11:45 pm
This was actually my friend's query. His uncle told him that Satan must've been sinless because it says in the Bible that it is virtually impossible to approach God when you sin. But since only the sinless can approach God, why does it say it the Bible that Satan approached God (in the case of Job) and not the other way around?
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Type: Question • Score: 0 • Views: 976 • Replies: 4
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BillRM
 
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Reply Sun 18 Jan, 2009 11:56 pm
@strongestwillsurvive,
Why would you expect logic in a fairy tale?
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NickFun
 
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Reply Mon 19 Jan, 2009 12:05 am
@strongestwillsurvive,
I guess that means the Bible is a load of crap. I've fornicated with unwed women. I guess I'm screwed.
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BillRM
 
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Reply Mon 19 Jan, 2009 01:19 am
@strongestwillsurvive,
Oh as a footnote the whole idea of an all knowing god having as the head angel a being that would rebel on him started me as a young child to reject the whole fairy tale of this culture religious faiths.

Second my young but even then logical mind wonder how a being that was suppose to be that close to god would not know that any insurgent would be pointless against an all knowing and all powerful god.

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sullyfish6
 
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Reply Thu 29 Jan, 2009 07:21 pm
You said: that it is virtually impossible to approach God when you sin.

That's your first mistake (believing this statement)

How else were sinners forgiven, if they did not approach God?
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