Sun 9 Dec, 2007 04:53 pm - dont probabilities have to be betwen 0 and 100%?
if based on john symptoms , his probability to have cancer was 30%, but mens probability to have cancer was 0%, then simply, the new probability... (view)
Sun 9 Dec, 2007 03:37 pm - but logically it doesnt make much sense dont you agree? if the new evidence, in this case, the probability of having cancer acording to gender, is very very low, then the new probability should be... (view)
Sun 9 Dec, 2007 03:10 pm - This means you are using:
P = Pold x Pnew + Pold
so P = 0. 36 x 0.2 + 0.36 = 0.432
however even if Pnew is insanely small, this formula would tend to Pold, which doesnt seem to make much... (view)
Sun 9 Dec, 2007 02:52 pm - Francis, thank you for your reply, about the age thing, i just edit the post, i meant "gender" not "age", about your first point, i thought it was implicit, but now i see that... (view)
Sun 9 Dec, 2007 02:35 pm - Thank you for your replies, but i dont believe the answer are correct, let me rewrite the problem:
John calculated based on his symptoms, to have 36% probability, now the Gender factor is taken... (view)
Sun 9 Dec, 2007 01:14 pm - Hello Everyone, im having the following problem, i need this for a medical diagnosis program.
After checking symptoms, john determines he has 36% chance to have cancer, given than john is man,... (view)
